Question with Complex Numbers
If \(z = x + iy\) where \(y ≠ 0\) and \(1+ z^2 ≠ 0\), show that the number \(w=\dfrac{z}{1+z^2}\)is real only if \(|z| = 1\)
would it help if i prove the converse?
What is the converse, @divu.mkr?
it's the reversed version of a statement
that if |z| = 1 then 'w' is real?
for example. if A then B is the original statement the converse would be If B then A and I'm going in and out of the question, my openstudy is real bad
Sure, if that works @divu.mkr
I dont know how to use latex... so try to understand just use this (z)(z bar) = |z|^2 so z=1/zbar and if a complex number is real then w= w bar take bar on both the sides replace 'z bar' by z they will become same
So, \(z\times \overline{z}=|z|^2\) Therefore, \(z=\dfrac{1}{\overline{z}}\) I don't get what you mean if a complex number is real, then w = w bar
when we take a bar over a complex number the sign of the complex quantity reverses so if the complex number is purely real then there will be no change in the complex number as the complex quantity is absent
\[\bar{z} \]
latex is \bar{insertsomethinghere} for the bar over the area
Ahh, I see. So, \(w\) is a complex number (cause you are dividing a complex by a complex), but since we have established its real, its conjugate should be the same..?
Cause there is no imaginary component?
yep, exactly
Great :) So, we turn: \[\huge{w=\frac{z}{1+z^2}}\] To \[\huge{\overline{w}=\frac{\overline{z}}{\overline{1+z^2}}}\]
Right..?
yep now just one of them
\[\huge{w}=\frac{\frac{1}{z}}{1+(\frac{1}{z})^2}\]?
yeah doing good
but it will be w bar
Didn'w we say w = w bar tho?
@divu.mkr?
you substituted in wrong eqn ...just saying that
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