For every point on the graph of F(x), there is a point on the graph of F -1(x) with exactly the same coordinates. A. True B. False
would this be false because since the second F(x) is negative wouldn't that make the numbers negative and not "exactly the same"
I think what you have would be correct for f(-x) but this is the inverse of the function f -1 where x and y are switched and would make it true.
so then it would be true not false?
`For every point on the graph of F(x), there is a point on the graph of F -1(x) with exactly the same coordinates.` this basically implies that f(x) and its inverse is the same graph. That is only true for f(x) = x and things like f(x) = 1/x. It's not true for any random f(x) function
so its false?
yes
is that what triciaal said incorrect?
what do you mean?
nevermind
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