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Rewrite cos(arcsinx) in terms of x
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x = sin(pi/3-arcsinx) ??
or here this better explains it.
I came to an answer of square root 1 - x^2. What do you think?
Thank you for a link, i will check it out
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Yes!
Correct. It is because of the cos^2 +sin ^2 =1 identity
cos^2 +sin ^2 =1 so cos=sqrt(1-sin^2) because of this cos(arcsinx)=sqrt(1-sin(arcsinx)^2)
which is what u got sqrt(1-x^2)
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