Please explain me how to solve this problem?
\[\rm if~ x^xy^yz^z=C,show~that~at~x=y=z,~\\~\frac{\partial^2z}{\partial x~\partial y}=[xlogex]^{-1} \]
First i'll take log on both sides so what i'll get is : \[\rm xlogx+ylogy+zlogz=logC\]
that is a good start
yep but after that im struggling
how about the next step? i need \(z_y\)
\[now~diff~w.r.ty~treating~x~as~constant~\\1+logy+(1+logz)\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}=0\\~\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}=-\frac{(1+logy)}{(1+\log z)}\]
or else if i diff the above equation again wrt x lets see what i get..
\[\rm So ~i~get~the~following~:\\ (1+logz)\frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial x~\partial y }+\frac{\partial z}{\partial y} \frac{\partial z}{\partial x}\frac{1}{z}=0\]
Looks good
substitute the values \(\dfrac{\partial z}{\partial y}\) and \(\dfrac{\partial z}{\partial x}\)
hey wait i think i got it! \[\rm \frac{\partial z}{\partial y}= -\frac{(1+logy)}{(1+logz)} \\ \& \frac{\partial z}{\partial x}= -\frac{(1+logx)}{(1+logz)} \\~putting~x=y=z~\\~\\(1+logx)\frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial x \partial y }+ \frac{1}{x} \cdot \frac{-(1+logx)}{(1+logx)}~\cdot~\frac{-(1+logx)}{(1+logx)}=0~\\~\frac{\partial^2 z }{\partial x \partial y}=-\frac{1}{(x[1+logx])}\\~~~~~~~~~~=-\frac{1}{(xlog(ex))}\\~~~~~~~~~~=-[xlog(ex)]^{-1}\]
Yay!! Thanks :)
You just wanted medals! Haha, just playing nice work!
-.- i did not understand it wanted help @ganeshie8 helped me
worried about that negative sign :( its -(xlogex)^{-1}
yes it has to be negative
ah so i suppose then theres a printing mistake Anyways Thanks @ganeshie8 :)
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