Is the following true: *I will post the mathematical expression as the first comment. Any and all help is greatly appreciated!
My question: \[\int\limits_{-\pi/4}^{\pi/4}(x^3+x^4\tan(x))dx = \int\limits_{-\pi/4}^{\pi/4}(u*\tan(u^{1/4})*du/4) \] if u = x^4. ???
HI!!
Hey misty:)
i wouldn't think so how did the sum become a product?
Damn.. I thought that might be it. So, would I distribute the dx, and then solve for dx in the du=4x^3*dx part?
btw the answer is pretty clear without finding any anti derivative, which is almost impossible
I thought about factoring out an x^3... is that it? :/
i think the point of this question is something else entirely
look carefully notice anything about the limits of integration?
let me put in another way you are not going to find a closed form for the anti derivative, ie. you are not going to find some function whose derivative is the integrand it is testing something else entirely
it's a half-pi interval, centered on 0? :/ I'll admit, I'm lost right now...
want a hint?
:( Please!
the "centered at zero " part is good
what kind of function is this? hint, compute \[f(\frac{\pi}{4})\] and \[f(-\frac{\pi}{4})\]
ok i will stop torturing you the function is odd
OMG!! My professor mentioned that about 2 weeks ago.. vaguely. I see where you're going now!! What's the definition of an odd function?
\[f(-x)=-f(x)\]
Ah.... so it's just sort of an "understand how these work, and look for the hints when they show up" situation?
which is clear because \(x^3\)is odd and \(tan(x)\) is odd and \(x^4\) is even, so \[(-x)^3+(-x)^4\tan(-x)=-x^2-x^4\tan(x)=-(x^3+x^4\tan(x))=-f(x)\]
you integrate an odd function \[\int_{-a}^af(x)dx\]you get \(0\) because of the symmetry
Goddamn you're blowing my mind, and I love it. Gotta... Like, it's reflected around the x-axis because it's Tangent, and since it's from |x| on either side of the y-axis, the two parts are equal to each other, just one's negative? :D
So the answer is 0? :D
yes, definitely zero think about what it means for a function to be odd
Thank you so much for your help:)
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It's possible to get that algebraically though, with u-sub right?
area above equals area below actually easiest to see with simplest odd function \(f(x)=x\)
no
forget it
... what do I put as "work", just a little not that it's an odd function?
look, just because you can write down a function doesn't mean you can find its anti derivative it is almost never the case that you can
all that calc 2 stuff you are doing is just showing off mostly the anti derivative does not have a closed form, the "work" is to say "function is odd, interval is from \(-a\) to \(a\), answer is 0"
Bueno, sounds good to me:)
that was the entire point of this question, to see if you would realize that
\[\color\magenta\heartsuit\]
♡ :)
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