proof by using definition 1/(cosh2x+sinh2x) =cosh2x-sinh2x

Question

anonymous · Answer

have u attempted this question plz show work out?

anonymous · Answer

sorry my internet is kinda slow, so it didnt show the edit one

parthkohli · Answer

lol multiply both numerator and denominator by $\cosh 2x-\sinh 2x$

anonymous · Answer

@ParthKohli  how would that work ?

parthkohli · Answer

i believe it should because $\cosh^2 x - \sinh ^2 x=1$

anonymous · Answer

wouldnt u change sinh and cosh to the e form and then solve it

parthkohli · Answer

not required

anonymous · Answer

@ParthKohli  i think it is because it says by definition

parthkohli · Answer

where does it say that?

anonymous · Answer

"proof by using definition 1/(cosh2x+sinh2x) =cosh2x-sinh2x"

parthkohli · Answer

err, ok. that's not much of a stretch so I guess yeah.

anonymous · Answer

so basically @eunna  first u take LHS and sub definition of cosh and sinh and simplify

irishboy123 · Answer

which makes it really boring and kinda defeats the object of the hyperbolics

anonymous · Answer

@ayeshaafzal221 i got 1/e^2x

anonymous · Answer

thats right :) well done now do the same thing on RHS

anonymous · Answer

yup i got the same answer

anonymous · Answer

congrats u got it :)

anonymous · Answer

just tag if u need more help :)

anonymous · Answer

ok, thanks, im so shock it so easy yet so confusing for me