prove: \[\cos ^{2}x-\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }tanxsin(2x)=\cos(2x)\]
If \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \cos^2x-\frac{1}{2}\tan x \sin(2x)=\cos(2x) }\) then, \(\color{#0000f0 }{ \displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\tan x\sin(2x) =\sin^2x}\) since \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \cos(2x)=\cos^2x-\sin^2x }\)
So, if you prove \(\color{#0000f0 }{ \displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\tan x\sin(2x) =\sin^2x}\) then your hypothesis is true
Note that \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \sin(2x) =2\sin x \cos x}\)
From there should be really easy...
yes i got it now and i have 1 more proof its : \[\frac{ cosxtanx+sinx }{ cosx }=2tanx\]
@SolomonZelman
\(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \frac{ax+b }{a}=\frac{ax }{a} +\frac{b}{a}=x+\frac{b}{a} }\)
you would agree with this kind of statement, right?
So, just separate the fraction (as I did with a,b,x), and simplify.
Note that you know sin(x)/cos(x)=tan(x) And regardless of what Z is, Z+Z=2Z.
yes i aree with that
ok, then you should be able to simplify that, apply basic trig and you are good to go:)
but when you said separate do you mean like this \[\frac{ cosx }{ cosx}+\frac{ tanx }{ cosx }+\frac{ sinx }{ cosx }\]
absolutely not
well with the cos and tan together sorry
yes, they are together, so you can just replace the first + you put, with ×
yea and tangent is just sinx/cosx
yes, but I would ay it the other way aroundfor the purpose of your identity
but on one side its \[\frac{ cosxtanx }{ cosx}+\frac{ sinx }{ cosx }\]
ok, so the first time you cancel the cos(x) on top and bottom, and you get? sin(x)/cos(x) is same thing as? then add tangents. look at the right side
ohhhhhhhh!! once it cancels you just get 2 ttangents basicaly
yes, that is exactly right!
thanks so much
yw
hey the first proof we did i dont really understand
\[\cos ^{2}x-\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }tanxsin(2x)=\cos(2x)\]
Ok, there is a rule: \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle\cos(a+b)=\cos(a)\cos(b)-\sin(a)\sin(b) }\)
We can prove it geometrically if you want, or if you want to take that as given, then that is fine too
okay
And also, \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle\cos(a-b)=\cos(a)\cos(b)+\sin(a)\sin(b) }\)
ill take the second option lol
no no, the first one is the one we apply, I am just letting you know of it
\(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle\cos(a+b)=\cos(a)\cos(b)-\sin(a)\sin(b) }\) and what happens when a and b are the same number, let say that both are x.
2x
\(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle\cos(2x)=\cos(x+x)=\cos(x)\cos(x)-\sin(x)\sin(x) }\)
and that is same as \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle\cos(2x)=\cos^2(x)-\sin^2(x) }\)
yes so can you say sin(2x)=2sinxcosx
So, \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \cos^2(x)-\frac{1}{2}\sin(2x)\tan(x)=\cos(2x)}\) \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \cos^2(x)-\frac{1}{2}\sin(2x)\tan(x)=\cos^2(x)-\sin^2(x)}\) \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\sin(2x)\tan(x)=\sin^2(x)}\)
yes, and then you apply \(\sin(2x)=2\sin(x)\cos(x)\)
And that rule comes from \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \sin(a+b)=\sin(a)\cos(b)+\sin(b)\cos(a)}\) (after setting a and b =x)
yes but how to conclude that that equals cos(2x)
\(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \cos^2(x)-\frac{1}{2}\sin(2x)\tan(x)=\cos^2(x)-\sin^2(x)}\) \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \cos^2(x)-\frac{1}{2}\cdot (2\sin(x)\cos(x))\cdot \tan(x)=\cos^2(x)-\sin^2(x)}\) \(\color{#000000 }{ \displaystyle \cos^2(x)-\frac{1}{2}\cdot (2\sin(x)\cos(x))\cdot \frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}=\cos^2(x)-\sin^2(x)}\)
simplify that and boom boom :)
i got it now
cool
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