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I decided to answer 1 question in a hurry...so I would say perhaps the answer is (b)! Since it is not clear from the graph whether the domain of f inverse is d<x<c. Why? because I clearly see that the domain of the restriction on f on a<x<b do not seem to be symmetric to d<x<c. Maybe u have to verify! Again, f-1(x) >= 0 for all x < 0 may hold true...so u might have to verify.
I think it's (d). \(f^{-1}(d) = b\), and \(f^{-1}(c) = a\). but \(d<c\) and \(b>a\). So the function is decreasing. Not what (d) is telling.
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