to my greatest discomfort I have to solve this exersise right here: http://prntscr.com/bcd827 (exercise 9) ... Can someone please lend a hand ?
cantfind the pattern..
You mean solve 5x=25?
no
wait
lol you have been posting calc questions and this is what shows up
because it was a random screenshot, my mistake :D
I uploaded the correct one
It's all good! :) But oh my gosh I did that last year and it is a pain. @agent0smith @Mehek14 @samanthagreer @sammixboo @sleepyjess @uri some of these good people can help you better than I can.
http://prntscr.com/bcdn6x here is the taylor expansion , basically I want to know the nth partial sum of this thing , or the general term of the corresponding sequence ...
So there are ten questions. Which one can you not do?
I can't find the general term for exersise 9
for the mac laurin series that is
wolfram alpha prints a result, but if I plug in 0 I dont get 0
and if I plug in 1 i dont get 0
Are you applying the this formula for the MacLaurin series?
yes
I know the formulas , just something doesnt make sense
the taylor expansion for xsinx starts with 0 ,0 , x^2 .....
Can you show your work to see how far you have gone (before hitting trouble)?
I did it by hand
by hand is ok.
did you get the one up to O7 with wolfram?
yes thats correct
Did you use the formula at the Wolfram link? This is what you're supposed to use.
my send result should be something like the above
what values did you get for \[f'(0)=? \\ f''(0)=? \\ f^{(3)}(0)=? \\ f^{(4)}(0)=? \\ \\ f^{(5)}(0)=? \\ f^{(6)}(0)=? \\ f^{(7)}(0)=?\\ f^{(8)}(0)=?\] you should see a pattern eventually
0 0 2 0 -4
can you make a guess for the next successive derivatives at 0
You would need to use the formula: f(x)=f'(0)+f'(0)+f""(0)/2!+... and use the derivatives as shown by @freckles
i can but it doesnt matter
since I cant see a pattern on the first 2 elements
ok then if you can't see the pattern yet then find the next few derivatives and evaluate it at x=0
The pattern comes from the list of derivatives!
how can you model a sequence that starts with 0 and has another consecutive 0
the pattern should be more obvious to you at the sixth derivative
I'll do the first four derivatives for you: \(sin(x)+x*cos(x)\) \(2*cos(x)-x*sin(x)\) \(-3*sin(x)-x*cos(x)\) \(x*sin(x)-4*cos(x)\)
0 , 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 whats the general term for this
mathmale I did all that
I am just stuck at finding the infinite series
You have to look at the odd and even derivatives separately.
hint: @Christos ignore the 0's find a pattern with teh non-zeros
And substitute cos(0)=1, and sin(0)=0!
*sin(0)=0 !
freckles if I find a pattern without the zeroes , then my formula is gonna ignore the first 2 elements
Pretend I give you 4 terms of a sequence \[a_1=2 \\ a_2=-4 \\ a_3=6 \\ a_4=-8\] can you give me the nth term of the sequence based on the behavior of the first 4 terms ?
meaning that when I set n = 0 on my formula I will get the 3rd element
(-1)^(n-1) * 2 * (n-1)2
from n=1 to inf
here are even derivatives, 2,4,6,8,10 \(2\cos(x)-x\sin(x)\) \(x\sin(x)-4\cos(x)\) \(6\cos(x)-x\sin(x)\) \(x\sin(x)-8\cos(x)\) \(10\cos(x)-x\sin(x)\) and bear in mind that sin(0)=0 You should find the pattern to apply to the equation. You cannot easily see the pattern of the coefficients.
I'll let @freckles to continue before I confuse you.
"(-1)^(n-1) * 2 * (n-1)2 " where does the end 2 come from?
end2 = step
of the numeric sequence
middle2 = starting point
typo
(-1)^(n-1) * [2 + (n-1) * 2]
I think the nth term of the sequence 2,-4,6,-8,... notice you have even numbers so think 2k from k=1 to k=n the terms alternate (-1)^(k-1) so put together you could write \[2k \cdot (-1)^{k-1}\] and you already know the powers of the x that correspond to these ... they are 2,4,6,8,... and now you have to look at that denominator (the factorial part) that corresponds to each
and 2+(n-1)*2 works to that simplifies to 2n
so what is the end series
just put it all together \[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2n (-1)^{n-1} x^{2n}}{(2n)!}\]
now lets evaluate this
from n = 1 to k = 3
I should get 0 + 0 + x^2
no?
no you don't care about the 0's
you only care about the terms that actually mean something 0 doesn't contribute anything
it contributes the zero value
if you do from n=1 to n=3 you should get x^2-x^4/6+x^6/120 hopefully
so if I evaluate n=1 to k=2
shouldn't that implies that I take the 2 first elements and add them together, whatever those may be
i'm not sure what you mean
i think I am a little stupid
I dont get this
:D
throw the 0's out they contribute nothing
find the pattern between the things that aren't 0
@mathmate I actually have to go if you are still here maybe you can explain more I think also @blurbendy is pretty smart at math I think
so whenever I have 0's (even one) at the beginning I always toss it away
yes you can
ok thanks for your help
good luck
if you are asking how to write the "pattern" \[ x^2 - \frac{x^4}{6 }+\frac{x^6}{120} - ...\] First, we don't try to put in terms such as x^1 or x^3 (with coeffs of 0). Rather, we use various "techniques" I would change the denominators into factorials: \[ x^2 - \frac{x^4}{3! }+\frac{x^6}{5! } - ...\]
next, we notice that the exponents are the even numbers starting with 2 2,4,6,... the "technique" or trick is to use 2n as an exponent if we start with n=1, this will generate 2,4,6, which is what we want.
if we write the pattern as \[ \frac{x^2}{1! } - \frac{x^4}{3! }+\frac{x^6}{5!} - \frac{x^8}{7! }+...\] we see the factorial is one less than the exponent, so 2n-1 the last thing is to get the correct sign. we see the first term is plus, and they alternate: n 1 + n 2 - n 3 + if we use (-1)^(n-1) (or (n+1) for the exponent), we will get the correct sign. putting it together, each term has the form \[ (-1)^{(n-1)} \frac{x^{2n}}{(2n-1)!} \] starting with n=1 thus \[ \sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^{(n-1)} \frac{x^{2n}}{(2n-1)!} \] as a check, the fourth term (i.e. n=4) we get \[ - \frac{x^8}{7!}\] which is correct.
if you evaluate that series at x=0 you will get 0 - 0 + 0-0 +... = 0 at x= pi/6, we expect to get pi/6 * sin(pi/6) = pi/12 =0.261799387799149 using the first four terms, we get 2.7416e-01 - 1.2527e-02 + 1.7172e-04 - 1.1209e-06= 0.261799383541780
I'm tempted to say that this could be a lot easier depending on how you're expected to find these. For instance, if you know the Maclauren series for \(e^x\), \(\sin x\), and a few others you are really plugging in a few things to get the answers. Like if we look at 6, we know the geometric series is \[\frac{1}{1-y} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty y^n\] so if you plug in y=-x you get: \[\frac{1}{1+x} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n x^n\] And you can do similar stuff for all the rest.
The "easiest" method will always depend on the background of the person working on the problem, AND the tools available. If Wolfram is not available (as in a classroom test), then we don't get to see the pattern of the coefficient, so we need the basics, which is the pattern of the derivatives, by hand, as in old school. If Wolfram is available, we get to see the pattern of the coefficients, as the OP has done, or even easier, the pattern of the derivatives (no worries about sign, factorials, etc.). Noting that sin(0)=0, cos(0)=1, the first 10 derivatives (using Wolfram) can be easily evaluated to: \(\sin(x)+x \cos(x)\) = 0 \(2 \cos(x)-x \sin(x)\) =2 \(-3 \sin(x)-x \cos(x)\)=0 \(x \sin(x)-4 \cos(x)\)=-4 \(5 \sin(x)+x \cos(x)\)=0 \(6 \cos(x)-x \sin(x)\)=6 \(-7 \sin(x)-x \cos(x)\)=0 \(x \sin(x)-8 \cos(x)\)=-8 \(9 \sin(x)+x \cos(x)\)=0 \(10 \cos(x)-x \sin(x)\)=10 from which we conclude that odd derivatives are zero, and even derivatives are \((-1)^{n/2+1}n\) Now all we have to do is to divide by the corresponding factorials to get the complete series. I would recommend the basic method starting from the definition of MacLaurin series. Once the foundations are made, it would be easy to find/devise other shortcuts according to one's experience.
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