Question

MEDAL for help in geometry!

Prove the following.

Given: \(\angle 3\) is supp. to \(\angle 1\);
\(\angle 4\) is supp. to \(\angle 2\).
Prove: \(\angle 3\) \(\cong\) \(\angle 4\)

Answer 1

@zepdrix @agent0smith

Answer 2

Suppose \[\large \bf \angle 3=x\]
then \[\large \bf \angle1=180-x\]

similarly,
\[\large \bf \angle4=y\]
then
\[\large \bf \angle 2=180-y\]

And we know that \(\large \bf \angle1~and~\angle2\) are vertically opposite angles.
therefore,
\[\large \bf \angle1=\angle2\]
plug the values in it,
we get
\[\large \bf 180-x=180-y\]
\[\large \bf \color{red}{x}=\color{red}{y}\]
therefore,
\[\large \bf \angle3~\cong~\angle 4\]

Answer 3

Hope it helps :D

Answer 4

I need to write a two-coloumn proof