Jason needs 10 cups of milk to make a chocolate shake for his family. His measuring device measures liquids by the pint. If 1 pint is equal to 2 cups, how many pints should jason measure?

Question

misssmartiez · Answer

2 x _ = 10

joshtray · Answer

If one pint equals 2 cups, then every two cups will just be one pint

edaii · Answer

5

misssmartiez · Answer

He is using PINTS.


1 pints = 2 cups.

He needs 10 cups, so,  to get to 10 cups, we do?

joshtray · Answer

So by the time you need 10 cups you will have 10/2 which is 5 pints

misssmartiez · Answer

As Josh said, we are converting. Since he gave the formula to us,

1 = 2 cups,

but we need 10 cups,

we do,

2 x 5 = 10.

Therefore, 5 pints = 10 cups.

He needs 5 pints. 

- @MissSmartiez