is Cos^2x(1+tan^2x)=1 an identity
\[\cos^2x\left(1+\tan^2x\right)=\cos^2x\left(1+\frac{\sin^2x}{\cos^2x}\right)\]What happens when you distribute the \(\cos^2x\) term?
What did you just do??
Why is it an identity?
I'm just using the definition of \(\tan x\), which is the ratio of \(\sin x\) to \(\cos x\).
does it have to be simplified into one of the trig identities?
That's what you need to do after distributing, yes. \[\cos^2x\left(1+\frac{\sin^2x}{\cos^2x}\right)=\cos^2x+\sin^2x=\cdots\]which should look familiar to you.
I'm not sure how you got that
This is the distributive property of multiplication:\[a(b+c)=ab+ac\]with \(a=\cos^2x\), \(b=1\) and \(c=\tan^2x=\dfrac{\sin^2x}{\cos^2x}\). More explicitly, \[\cos^2x\left(1+\frac{\sin^2x}{\cos^2x}\right)=\cos^2x+\frac{\sin^2x\cos^2x}{\cos^2x}=\cos^2x+\sin^2x=\cdots\]
cos^2x+sin^2x=1
@HolsterEmission
Right, so the original equation is indeed an identity.
This is the pythagorean identity
Yup. A lot of these "prove this is an identity" questions reduce to this fundamental identity.
thanks so much
yw
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