Calculus help!
whats the question?
i just attached it
is there anyway of solving without trig function?
i doubt it
so i made it this far \[9\pi \int\limits_{0}^{\sqrt3} \frac{ 1 }{ 9+x^2 }dx\]
@TheSmartOne
Use the arc tan method, to integrate?
heres the enclosed solid where the green line is \[\sqrt{3}\]
Is there any other way? @iTz_Sid
Honestly. Thats the only way I see of solving it. :/
@zepdrix
@Astrophysics
Why do you need another way? :o Trig sub works so nicely.
\[\large\rm x=3\tan \theta\]
teacher hasn't taught trig sub yet so I'm trying to see if there is another way
is there another way or how does trig sub Work?
I'm not sure of another way, sorry :( \[\large\rm 9\pi \int\limits\frac{1}{9+x^2}dx\]The idea is to make use of your Pythagorean Identity to remove the addition in the problem.\[\large\rm x=3\tan \theta\]Our integral becomes,\[\large\rm 9\pi \int\limits\limits\frac{1}{9+9\tan^2\theta}dx\]Factoring out a 1/9 gives us,\[\large\rm \pi\int\limits\frac{1}{1+\tan^2\theta}dx\]Notice from this point you can apply your Pythagorean Identity, ya?\[\large\rm 1+\tan^2\theta=\sec^2\theta\]
\[\large\rm x=3\tan \theta\]Of course we need to replace the differential as well,\[\large\rm dx=3\sec^2\theta~d \theta\]
\[\large\rm \pi\int\limits\limits\frac{1}{1+\tan^2\theta}3\sec^2\theta~d \theta\]
Lil confusing? :o
I'm not sure why you would be assigned a problem that makes use of a concept you haven't learned yet :\ Going ahead in the book or something?
a little lol
no but yeah he left it as a homework problem, he expects us to do our research lol
Ooo.. dat.. man :[
so can we replace the\[1+\tan ^{2}\theta \] now
Maybe we back up a tiny sec. Because it might not be totally clear why I chose 3tangent for the substitution.
yeah that would be a big help
\[\large\rm 9\pi \int\limits\limits\frac{1}{9+x^2}dx\]If we pull a 9 out of each term in the denominator, right from the start,\[\large\rm \frac{9\pi}9 \int\limits\limits\limits\frac{1}{1+\frac{x^2}{9}}dx\]Let's bring this 9 into the square with the x though,\[\large\rm \pi\int\limits\limits\limits\limits\frac{1}{1+\left(\frac{x}{3}\right)^2}dx\] Our denominator now has the form \(\large\rm 1+(stuff)^2\)
This is very helpful, because we know that our Pythagorean Identity has the form \(\large\rm 1+(\tan\theta)^2\) So we just replace the "stuff" with tangent and we're good to go.
\[\large\rm \frac x3=\tan \theta\]
Multiplying by 3 gives us \(\large\rm x=3\tan\theta\) I guess before, I was thinking about it a little differently. If we can somehow get a 9 on each term, then factor it out, then we have effectively created the 1+tan^2.
I think that second way of thinking is a little less algebraically complicated... but I dunno.
\[\large\rm \pi\int\limits\limits\limits\limits\limits\frac{1}{1+\left(\color{royalblue}{\frac{x}{3}}\right)^2}\color{orangered}{dx}\] Our substitution looks like this:\[\large\rm \color{royalblue}{\frac x3=\tan \theta}\]Taking derivative to find our differential replacement,\[\large\rm \frac{dx}3=\sec^2\theta~d \theta\qquad\to\qquad \color{orangered}{dx=3\sec^2\theta~d \theta}\]
\[\large\rm \pi\int\limits\limits\limits\limits\limits\limits\frac{1}{1+\left(\color{royalblue}{\frac{x}{3}}\right)^2}\color{orangered}{dx}\quad=\quad \pi\int\limits\limits\limits\limits\limits\limits\frac{1}{1+\left(\color{royalblue}{\tan \theta}\right)^2}\color{orangered}{3\sec^2\theta~d \theta}\]
Sorry I'll take a breath lol
yeah know i see what how you got it
lol
\[\large\rm 3\pi\int\limits\frac{\sec^2\theta}{1+\tan^2\theta}d \theta\]Applying our Pythagorean Identity in the denominator (that was the whole purpose of doing this goofy method),\[\large\rm 3\pi\int\limits\frac{\sec^2\theta}{\sec^2\theta}d \theta\]
\[\large\rm 3\pi\int\limits d \theta\]The actual integration step is pretty trivial, ya? :o It's all the stuff surrounding it that makes it tricky.
Yeah it is a bit tricky
Hmm ok let's at least try to finish this one up :D Maybe you can look back at it later and make sense of it.
So integrating 1 d(theta) gives us theta.\[\large\rm 3\pi\int\limits\limits d \theta\quad=\quad 3\pi \theta\]In the same way that integrating 1*dx would give us x. Hmm but what is this theta, it's not inside of any trig function. We'll have to go back to our substitution to make sense of it.\[\large\rm \frac x3=\tan \theta\]We need to solve for theta,\[\large\rm \theta=\arctan\left(\frac x3\right)\]Hopefully that step makes sense, yes? :o
yes it does
\[\large\rm 3\pi\int\limits\limits\limits d \theta\quad=\quad 3\pi \theta\]\[\large\rm 3\pi\int\limits\limits\limits d \theta\quad=\quad 3\pi \arctan\left(\frac x3\right)\]So instead of looking for new boundary values for theta, we're just undoing our substitution and using the old boundaries.
\[\large\rm 3\pi \arctan\left(\frac x3\right)|_0^{\sqrt3}\]Giving us,\[\large\rm 3\pi \left[\arctan\left(\frac{\sqrt3}{3}\right)-\arctan(0)\right]\]
Your a lifesaver!
Thanks it makes sense too!
You remember how to deal with that arctangent type stuff? How to turn it into an angle?
not quite
\[\large\rm \arctan\left(\frac{\sqrt3}{3}\right)=\phi\qquad\to\qquad \tan \phi=\frac{\sqrt3}{3}\]I guess you have to remember a little bit of your unit circle. This is the smaller angle, ya? \(\large\rm \phi=\frac{\pi}{6}\) I think.
And tan0=0. Therefore arctan(0)=0.
\[\large\rm 3\pi \left[\arctan\left(\frac{\sqrt3}{3}\right)-\arctan(0)\right]\]becomes,\[\large\rm 3\pi \left[\frac{\pi}{6}-0\right]\]
yeah i must review my trig functions
And don't forget, Wolfram is a great tool for checking your work! :) https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integral+from+0+to+sqrt3+of+9pi%2F(9%2Bx%5E2)dx
Thanks!
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