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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Can someone Please explain this problem to me?

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

\[\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{ k(k+2) }{ (k+6)^2 }\]

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Apparently that Diverges. But I dont see how. If you expand it all out, they exponents are the same. And the denominator is bigger.

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

@zepdrix @mathmate

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

@SolomonZelman @Directrix

OpenStudy (seratul):

Are you sure it diverges? It converges for sure.

OpenStudy (seratul):

Whoever or whatever said it diverges probably made a mistake.

zepdrix (zepdrix):

The leading terms are k^2, right? So as the terms get bigger and bigger, each term is approaching a value of 1 (I can explain this further if you're confused). So you're adding an infinite number of 1's together: Divergent.

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

But isnt that just 1, so wouldn't that be convergent? I thought any constant number would be convergent

zepdrix (zepdrix):

Maybe you're confusing `sequence` with `series`. Marceilli was making that mistake yesterday :D lol. So if you look at the limit,\[\large\rm \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{k(k+2)}{(k+6)^2}=\frac11\]This tells you that once we get to a really large nth term, the term is 1... ish. So then your big nth term is 1ish, \(\large\rm a_n=1\) and all the terms after that are 1 also, right? So you're adding a bunch of 1's together.

zepdrix (zepdrix):

That adds up to an infinite amount. The limit must give you zero for it to converge.

zepdrix (zepdrix):

The `terms` are converging to 1, yes. But the `sum` is diverging to infinity because you're adding up a bunch of 1's.

OpenStudy (seratul):

Oh, so it's basically just adding 1 infinite amount of times right?

zepdrix (zepdrix):

Ya I think you silly billy's are thinking of the sequence D: The sequence converges, yes.

zepdrix (zepdrix):

But not the series. Where you at Sid? :U confused?

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

No I think i get it now. But how do you distinguish a sequence problem from a series problem. I learned Sequences in section 1 and series in section 2. But the problems practically look the same to me D:

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Oh is it that sequences dont have the summation symbol?

zepdrix (zepdrix):

That's the thing, the wording will be almost identical. You have to look for the keyword. A sequence problem will look like this usually: "Determine whether or not the sequence converges, if it does, determine the limit value." A series problem will look like this usually: "Determine whether or not the series converges, if it does, determine its sum"

zepdrix (zepdrix):

But yes, summation is a series :) Good call. Look for that.

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Oh okay I see. So for series, the summation has to = 0 for it to converge. Any other number would mean that it diverges?

zepdrix (zepdrix):

Usually for sequence they will put those weird squiggly brackets around it.\[\large\rm \left\{~\sin(x)e^{-x}~\right\}_{n=0}^{\infty}\]

OpenStudy (seratul):

It's interesting to see how they can take algebra 2 math and introduce it again in calc 2.

zepdrix (zepdrix):

In order for the `series` to converge, then the `sequence` must converge to zero, yes. Think about it and it might seem logical. When your n gets big enough, eventually the terms have to be 0's, otherwise you're adding a bunch of non-zero stuff. That doesn't guarantee convergence, (Think about the harmonic series) \(\large\rm \lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac1n=0\) which we know is divergent. But it at least gives you something to work with.

zepdrix (zepdrix):

So I guess maybe think of it like this... If the sequence converges to zero, then the series has the potential to be convergent. if the sequence converges to any other value, then the series diverges.

OpenStudy (solomonzelman):

Yes, If your sequence does not converge to zero, series (definitely) diverges.

OpenStudy (solomonzelman):

you can compare with the harmonic series, \(\displaystyle \sum_{k=j}^{\infty}\frac{ k(k+2) }{ (k+6)^2 }\ge\sum_{k=j}^{\infty}\frac{ (k+6)}{ (k+6)^2}=\sum_{k=j+6}^{\infty}\frac{ 1}{ k}\) if you really like ((it's a joke))

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Sorry. I am getting confused again. I thought sequences and series where different problems. How are you looking at the sequence of a series problem?

OpenStudy (solomonzelman):

Suppose you have any infinite series (will call it S). Then, suppose that the sequence converses to x. So, at some point (after some Nth term), you are (pretty much) adding x infinitely many times. So, if this x is NOT ZERO, than the series diverges.

OpenStudy (solomonzelman):

agree with this logic?

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Oh yes. That makes sense

zepdrix (zepdrix):

Sequence is the list of terms. \(\large\rm a_1, a_2, ...,a_n\) Series is the sum of those terms. \(\large\rm a_1+a_2+...+a_n\)

zepdrix (zepdrix):

Do you see how they relate?

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

So a sequence basically looks at it by 1 term While a series looks at multiple together

zepdrix (zepdrix):

ya sure, that's a way to think of it :)

OpenStudy (loser66):

\(\dfrac{k^2+2k+1-1}{(k+6)^2}=\dfrac{(k+1)^2}{(k+6)^2}-\dfrac{1}{(k+6)^2}\) As \(k\rightarrow \infty\), the first term \(\rightarrow 1\), the second term \(\rightarrow 0\) Hence, it is converge. To me : )

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

I thought it was Divergent no?

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Wait so if the exponents of a given summation of a series is the same, it will go to 1 and Diverge. True?

OpenStudy (solomonzelman):

as n --> infinity, A_n = 1, right? so you are adding 1's infinitely many times. Yes?

OpenStudy (solomonzelman):

Yes, polynomial of nth degree / polynomial of nth degree, then sequence converges to 1, and series diverges.

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Oh okay i see it now. Thanks guys! I really appreciate the help! :3

zepdrix (zepdrix):

Yayyy

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Wait another question.

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

So it would work the same way if the exponent was "n" \[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1+8^n }{ 5^n }\]

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Since the exponents are the same. The sequence converges to 1. Thus the summation diverges. Right?

zepdrix (zepdrix):

Exponentials? Naw this is a bit different. That rule applies to polynomials.\[\large\rm \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1+8^n}{5^n}\quad=\quad \lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac15\right)^n+\left(\frac85\right)^n\] 8/5 is larger than 1, so when you multiply it by itself, it's going to keep getting bigger, right? (8/5)^(7000) = 3 bajillion.

zepdrix (zepdrix):

It diverges, yes, but not for the reason you thought.

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Oh I see.

OpenStudy (itz_sid):

Thanks. I understand it now!

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