Autonomous Differential Equations. I have tried to watch videos and such ( I couldn't get a video similar enough) and I just don't know how to do it
Convert the differential equations into a system of two first-order differential equations. State the alternative equation and find all equilibrium points.
@phi
please help to explain how
I prefer to use Leibniz notation for a problem like this; that is, \(\dfrac{\mathrm dx}{\mathrm dt}=\dot x\), \(\dfrac{\mathrm d^2x}{\mathrm dt^2}=\ddot x\), and so on. So just rewriting the ODE, you have \[\ddot x+\omega^2\left(x-\frac{1}{4}x^3\right)=0\iff \frac{\mathrm d^2x}{\mathrm dt^2}+\omega^2\left(x-\frac{1}{4}x^3\right)=0\]Substitute \(v=\dfrac{\mathrm dx}{\mathrm dt}\), so that \(\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dt}=\dfrac{\mathrm d^2x}{\mathrm dt^2}\). The idea here is to rewrite the ODE as a function of \(v\) and \(x\). By the chain rule, you have \[\frac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dt}=\frac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}\frac{\mathrm dx}{\mathrm dt}=v\frac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}\]All this to say we can reduce the order of the ODE to get \[v\frac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}+\omega^2\left(x-\frac{1}{4}x^3\right)=0\]which is separable and easy to solve.
So when I separate and solve, the answers will be the equilibrium points?
No, the equilibrium points are the points that make the first derivative vanish (so the solution is stationary at these points). The solution to that last ODE is a function \(v=f(x)\), but remember that we're setting \(v=\dfrac{\mathrm dx}{\mathrm dt}\), and so the solution to that ODE just yields yet another ODE (the second in a system of first order ODEs). So the equilibrium points for the original second-order ODE occur at the points where \(v=\dfrac{\mathrm dx}{\mathrm dt}=0\).
Thank you so much! This makes so much more sense than the lecture notes I have been trying to follow and understand all day
Glad I could help!
I shall bug you again in the future :P
the **brief**: convert into a system..... ;-| \(\ddot x + \omega^2 x (1 - \frac{x^2}{4} ) = 0\), so let \(y = \dot x\) which means \(\dot y = \ddot x\) \(\left( \begin{matrix} \dot x \\ \dot y & \\ \end{matrix} \right) = \left( \begin{matrix} 0 & 1\\ - \omega^2( 1 - \frac{x^2}{4}) & 0 \\ \end{matrix} \right) \left( \begin{matrix} x \\ y & \\ \end{matrix} \right)\) f.p.'s at \(\dot x = \dot y = 0\) ie at \(y = 0\) and at \( x = 0, \pm 2 \)
I was with you until you said y=0, x=0, +-2
\(\left( \begin{matrix} \dot x \\ \dot y & \\ \end{matrix} \right) = \left( \begin{matrix} 0 & 1\\ \color{red}{- \omega^2( 1 - \frac{x^2}{4})} & 0 \\ \end{matrix} \right) \left( \begin{matrix} x \\ y & \\ \end{matrix} \right)\)
I might be dumb, any way you could elaborate?
(if it is not too much hassle)
:-)) the question is asking you to create a system of 2 first order DE's and the fixed points happen when \(\dot x = \dot y = 0\) ie you are looking at momentum vs displacement. typically, the key point here is linearisation of a non-lin DE by approximation methods, not solving a non-linear DE by removing the independent variable.
oh wait okay yeah I understand where you got the solution for x but I have one question (which I thought I understood at first but clearly don't)
you have this \[\left( \begin{matrix} \dot x \\ \dot y & \\ \end{matrix} \right) = \left( \begin{matrix} 0 & 1\\ \color{red}{- \omega^2( 1 - \frac{x^2}{4})} & 0 \\ \end{matrix} \right) \left( \begin{matrix} x \\ y & \\ \end{matrix} \right)\] why is it a negative w, not a positive?
@IrishBoy123
compare the matrix to your original DE
it is the partial derivatives yeah no worries! thank you! then I would just use |dw:1479774244112:dw| right?
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