The function f is defined by
\(f:x \rightarrow x^2-x,x \in~\mathbb{R}\)
State whether f is one-to-one,giving a reason for the statement.If the domain of f is restricted to the subset of \(\mathbb{R}\)
for which
\(x\ge~k\) find the least value of k for which f is one-to-one.
Answer: No. f(0)=f(1)=0
Not sure how to do next..
find the least value of k for which f is one-to-one.
I am confused .-.
okay.. xD r u confused with the question or my answer ?
very confused by the question and I think the answer might be wrong
nvm answer is right
-> find where the function is one to one? there is only one value...
do u hv any hints? ^
is the answer 1/4 ?
hmmm f(1/4) = (1/4)^2 - (1/4) = 1/16 - 1/4 = 1/16 - 4/16 = -3/16 f(3/4) = (3/4)^2 - (3/4) = 9/16 - 12/16 = -3/16
but close ;)
okay,let me try.. (:
the dot I drew should be the only one-to-one point in this function |dw:1480912296146:dw|
excuse my horrible drawing skills x'D
it's okay..it's better than my drawing.. xD
basically, this function is symmetrical so the one point that is alone without a repeated y value would be the middle point the repeated points each have their evil twin the same distance from this middle point you have pointed out that f(0) = f(1) and so the middle point would be the middle of those two values do you have a better guess now? ;)
I think i got it
is it x=1/2
mhmm ^_^ thanks what I think your answer should be although it was really confusing the way they asked it >.>
*that is what I think
i use the completing the square method to find the value based on ur diagram
uhhh you could have just done (1 - 0)/2 = 1/2 because you found that f(0) = f(1) and the middle point should be the perfect middle of those two...
xD
xD
but completing the square works too x'D
it's just more work .-.
Thank you! @Angle ^_^
agree with u @Angle x'D
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