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Mathematics 28 Online
sweetburger:

looks like a fun q

sweetburger:

\(r(t)=(\cos(t),\sin(t),t)\) show that the helix is not planar. My guess is a contradiction where we initially say r(t) is a plane and the normal of said plane must be orthogonal to the tangent vector for all points. So \[r'(t)=(-\sin(t),\cos(t),1)\]. My confusion here is the norm of the "plane" that we're looking at here is that purely just the currently parametrized equation of the helix? If so i think this can be done \[r(t)\bullet r'(t)=0\] im saying that if the normal of the plane and the tangent vector are going to be orthogonal then the dot product must be 0 for all points but not sure how to write this as in mathier terms. \[r(t) \bullet r'(t)= (\cos(t))(-\sin(t))+(\sin(t))(\cos(t))+t=0\] (yes i realize its not equal to 0) terms cancel \[t \neq 0\] so since this was the result does this sufficiently show that the helix is not planar?

Ultrilliam:

@Vocaloid

Vocaloid:

@sillybilly123 I don't quite remember how to do this can you show me?

sillybilly123:

simplifying this just to get on the same song-sheet, if you can imagine that you are on a flat surface (2-D) and tied by a rubber band to a tree. you are at \(\mathbf r(t) = <x(t), y(t)>\), and free to move in any direction you choose in this 2D space. you can complete prefect circles around the tree, with the tree as the origin and maintaining a constant radius, in which case \(\mathbf r \cdot \mathbf{r'} = 0\). because the geometry tells you that \(\mathbf r \perp \mathbf r' \). on another extreme, you can instead choose to move directly away from the tree, along the length of the rubber band. in that case, \(\mathbf{r'}\) is still the tangent vector but clearly \(\mathbf r \cdot \mathbf{r'} \ne 0\) because \(\mathbf r \parallel \mathbf r' \). that's all in just 2-D, in a plane. can you establish co-planarity, using maths tricks with \(\mathbf r\) and it's derivative, when you are already in a 2-D plane?! imagine now that you are tied to the same tree but wearing and using a jetpack. the \(\mathbf r\) vector is till just an arrow that points from the base of the tree to you hovering somewhere above the base of the tree. what is interesting is that the \(\mathbf r'\) vector is still the tangent vector. but not because \(t\) actually means time or that \(\mathbf r'\) has anything to do with velocity. if we used \(\mathbf r = \mathbf r(\lambda)\) instead of \(\mathbf r = \mathbf r(t)\), this might seem more obvious. there is, here, a pretty direct answer to what I am guessing the question is: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/939275/a-space-curve-is-planar-if-and-only-if-its-torsion-is-everywhere-0 plus, found this vid, it runs through a load of important mechanics if you wanna get back into the idea of curvature: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=q8gSiUR_ik4 the mathstack thing I can help translate, if that is needed, but there is more to this than I think maybe was anticipated at question inception. maybe.

sillybilly123:

know that's waffly

sillybilly123:

hey @Bob, can you pls use yer **supreme genius** to check my thoughts?!?!

Bob:

sure thing hmmm... it looks like it was 99.348% pasted off of google or another source. though that leaves a 0.652% chance of it being your own work, i give you the benefit of the doubt

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