fun math q http://prntscr.com/hl16pj just for fun i know the solution
If \(f(\mathbf x)\) is harmonic on \(\mathbb R^3\), then: \( \nabla^2 f(\mathbf x ) = 0 \implies f_{xx} + f_{yy} + f_{zz} = 0\) And: \(\iint\limits_S (f \nabla f ) \cdot d \mathbf S \) \(= \iint\limits_S < f f_x, f f_y, f f_z > \cdot ~ d \mathbf S \) \(= \iint\limits_S \mathbf A \cdot d \mathbf{ S} \) ...which, by divergence Theorem: \(= \iiint\limits_V div ( \mathbf A ) ~ d V \) \(= \iiint\limits_V <\partial_x, \partial_y, \partial_z> \cdot < f f_x, f f_y, f f_z > ~ d V \) \(= \iiint\limits_V f^2_x + f^2 _y + f^2 _z + f( f_{xx} + f_{yy} + f_{zz}) ~ d V \) \(= \iiint\limits_V |\nabla f|^2 + (f \times 0) ~ d V \) so you fill in the blanks
i'll set you one back tomorrow :)
this stuff is pretty simple, so maybe we can co-generate the answer key they clearly want ??
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