Help With Calculus
@Shadow @Vocaloid
if cos(x) = 3x/pi somewhere between 0 and pi/2 then cos(x) - 3x/pi = 0 must have a solution between 0 and pi/2 evaluate cos(x) - 3x/pi at both endpoints (so evaluate it at x = 0 and x = pi/2), and see if 0 is contained between the two results
It is
@SmokeyBrown
then that's it, you're done with the proof
Do I have to make a graph
not really, the algebraic proof should be enough if your teacher allows it, sure, why not
okay so the evaluation for the pointzero would equal zero and the evaluation at th epoint pi/2 = -1.5
hm close, I think cos(x) - 3x/pi ends up being 1 at x = 0 and -1.5 at pi/2
cos(0) - 3(0)/pi = cos(0) = 1 now, since 0 is between 1 and -1.5, then the intermediate value 0 is a solution, therefore making cos(x) - 3x/pi = 0 somewhere between the interval, therefore making cos(x) = 3x/pi somewhere between the interval, thus completing the proof
if you want to prove this graphically, you can graph cos(x) - 3x/pi between 0 and pi/2 and it will end up crossing the x-axis somewhere, thus showing the proof visually
DO I just make a graph of this polynomial for this question>
you could, yeah, you'd just pick an interval that shows that the function has at least one positive value and one negative value, as well as being continuous
So whats the best way to do this problem like make a graph or another way
I'd probably show it algebraically, you can pick 1 x-value that gives a positive output value, and 1 x-value that gives a negative output value, and, assuming the function is continuous (which it is) that proves that it crosses the x-axis somewhere and thus has at least one root
to save you some time x = 0 and x = 1 fulfill this requirement
so when I substitute 0 I get 1 When I substitute 1 I get -9
good, since one result is + and the other is - that means 0 must be an intermediate value thus proving there's a root between x = 1 and x = 0
Sorry I'm making notes as I go so I'm replying a little late
yeah, np, graphing would work, it's just that making a graph isn't always practical especially on an exam
And btw for the previous question do you just pick any two points and work with it
for the intermediate value problems, yes, I try to pick x-values that are easy to calculate, and work in terms of proving the intermediate value
anyway for 3 you need to take the derivative of sqrt(x+1) according to derivative rules, bring the exponent down as a coefficient, reduce the exponent by 1, and take the derivative of what's inside the parentheses
SO If I were to pick 0 and 2 It would still work
yes
OKay perfect
I'm confused, what is the exponent in sqrt (x+1)
sqrt(x+1) is equivalent to (x+1)^(1/2) so the exponent would be 1/2
|dw:1539389527896:dw| brief review
-1/2?
:S
yeah you're on the right track so, if we take the exponent down from (x+1)^(1/2) we get (1/2) then we take (x+1)^(1/2), reduce the exponent by 1 to get (x+1)^(-1/2)
then we take the derivative of the thing in parentheses, (x+1). the derivative of a constant by itself is 1 (so derivative of x is 1, derivative of p is 1, derivative of triangle is 1, etc.) and the derivative of a constant is 0, so the derivative of x + 1 is 1 + 0 or just 1
then putting the three parts of the derivative together: (1/2) * (x+1)^(-1/2) * (1) = your derivative
now it doesn't just want the derivative, it wants f'(1) which is the derivative at x = 1, so we'd just plug x = 1 into the derivative (1/2) * (x+1)^(-1/2) * (1) to get the solution
1/2^3/2
be careful with parentheses (1/2) * (x+1)^(-1/2) ---> plugging in x = 1 gives us ---> (1/2) * 2 ^(-1/2) = 1/[2sqrt(2)]
basically, a^(-1/2) is equivalent to 1/sqrt(a) since negative exponents can be re-written as positive exponents in the denominator
got it
so the answer to f ' = 1/[2sqrt(2)]
yeah
to show that a piecewise function is differentiable at a certain point, show that that the function is continuous ---> show that the pieces of the function are equal at that point
do I use the x values provided so 0?
yes so in this case just show that x * sin(1/x) = 0 at x = 0 (which is pretty easy)
its false when I do x=0
well, I guess if you get technical about it, sin(1/x) * x is undefined at 0, but the limit is 0 (it approaches 0 without actually getting there) making the function continuous
i'd have to think about b) a bit more but I think it has to do with the LH and RH limits
Yeha I think it has to do with that too
ugh, idk how I would do it algebraically, but I guess you could graph it
would I graph x sin (1/x)
would I graph x sin (1/x)
@@jhonyy9
you wan graphing xsin(1/x) ?
No, I'm asking if thats What I'm supposed to do
\(\color{#0cbb34}{\text{Originally Posted by}}\) @zarkam21 \(\color{#0cbb34}{\text{End of Quote}}\)
This is my problem, I'm on part b
Q. 4 - ?
Yes Part B
@dude
@zarkam21 than yu see the f(x) for x=0 given that f(x) =0 => not is differentiable or not ?
Yes
so this mean that for x=0 => f(x) =0 and you need getting the derivativ of zero - so how ?
impossibile - i think is clearly
Okay so how would I use the definition to show that
easy bc. for x=0 => f(x)=0 => have not derivativ => is not differentiable i think in this way
OKay thanks, do you care if I get a second opinion?
@Vocaloid when you get a chance can you please look at this
I mean for this the question tells you that x is undefined when \(x sin(\frac{1}{x})=0\) You cannot find the derivative of an undefined point ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
OKay we can just see what @Vocaloid says, as another opinion because i'm confused myself So @Vocaloid when you get a change
@Shadow
Undefined then?
x is defined at 0, the function manually defines it to be 0 at x = 0
SO using the definition of a derivative it would be the same
what
The answer to 4b. USing the definition of the derivative, for x=0 => f(x)=0 => not having a derivative. This is not differentiable
that's redundant. "it has no derivative so it's not differentiable" xsin(1/x) oscillates at x = 0 so it is not differentiable
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