a_n= cosn/e^n, converge/diverge?
converge
can u explain how u got that?
intuitively you can think of cos(n) as a bounded term. So lim n-> + inf |cos(n)|/e^n less than or equal to lim n-> + inf 1/e^n Then use squeeze theorem
cos(n) is bounded between 1 and -1
Is there any way to use latex on this site, I have a feeling that looks confusing
Perform the integral test on the expression. If the integral from 1 to infinity of the same expression converges, then the sum of discrete values converges as well. When you integrate, you get \[1/2*e^{-n}*(\sin(n)-\cos(n))\] and you can evaluate it from 1 to infinity.
@zaighum: It's basically a simplified version of latex with limitations; not nearly as comprehensive but it's similar.
\[\lim_{n->\inf}\]
\[\lim_{n->\infty} \frac{|cosn|}{e^n} \leq \frac{1}{e^n} \]
\[\rightarrow \lim_{n->\infty} \frac{-1}{e^n} \leq \lim_{n->\infty} \frac{cosn}{e^n} \leq \lim_{n->\infty} \frac{1}{e^n}\]
Both side goes to 0 as so middle term goes to 0 to be squeeze theorem
so bc it goes to 0, it converges?
Because 1/e^n and -1/e^n converge and the our term is bounded by both, it converges
oh ok, so then did we have to use the integral test? or is the sandwich theorem enough
Both are equally valid here. :P
ok :), thanks ya'll
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