Question

Can someone explain why tanπ=0 doesn't imply that arctan0=π?

Answer 1

it does

Answer 2

That's what I thought. Thank you.

Answer 3

what maybe i'm wrong arctan0=0

Answer 4

Oh dear...I was wrong then also...That makes sense because zero is normally always zero when plugged into a trig function.

Answer 5

cos(0)=1

Answer 6

arctan is the inverse of tan its weird when you take arctan of both sides it should still hold unless I'm missing something

Answer 7

arctan(tanpi)=arctan(0)
pi=arctan(0)

Answer 8

omg i totally forgot we have to restrict the domain of tan so that tan would have inverse and pi is outside that domain

Answer 9

omg...SHOOT ME!

Answer 10

for reals tan is not one to one so we have to make it one to one so it does have a freaking inverse

Answer 11

i'm such an idiot

Answer 12

YOU?! At least you are able to figure this out!!! I can't for the life of me! :D