What is the limit as x goes to infinity of ((ln x)^p)/x?
I keep getting infinity over infinity no matter how many times I do L'Hopital's rule. What's the right way to do this?
i think it s correct way and u take p times
That doesn't make sense. The problem is the derivative of (ln x)^p gives me 1/x as part of the answer. x goes into the denominator, and voila, the limit as x goes to infinity of x is infinity - thus the infinity over infinity. That's why I'm thinking I'm doing something wrong.
i think \[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}p!*1/x=0\]
Wouldn't that equal \[p!\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} 1/x\] 0*p!=0. I don't get how that's relevant.
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}p*(p-1)*(p-2)*****2*1*1/x\]
is ok?
I'll see if I can turn that into a factorial somehow. Thanks.
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!