Can someone show me why cos^2(x) is equal to (1/2)cos(2x) + 1/2 ?
no one?
Workin' it.
Gimme a mo
*sigh* Ignore RodneyF.
wolfram says it's true... don't know how in the world that is true.
There's a few reasons you can show depending on your understanding. There's the \(e^{i\theta}\) argument, or there's the angle addition arguement. Which would you prefer?
Its basically a derivative of the double angle formula for sin and cos. I can have a go at writing the proof out, but you may be better to google it
There is no algebraic way? hmm..
There is. Its just quite fiddly
There is, using the sum of angles formula.
cos (2x) = cos^2(x) - sin^2(x) cos(2x) + sin^2(x) = cos^2(x) cos (2x) + 1 - cos^2(x) = cos^(x) cos(2x) +1 = 2cos^2(x) cos(2x)/2 + 1/2 = cos^2(x)
Got it thanks.
Yep.
But doesn't that assume the prior knowledge of that trig identity?
Was just about finished with mine.
Or doesnt that matter?
It assumes you know the addition of angles identity yes.
lol
I'm in calc.. should have known that identity.. Always forget important stuff...
oh well..
sin 2a= sin ( a+a ) = sin a cos a + cos a sin a = 2 sin a cos a. cos 2 a= cos ( a+a ) = cos a cos a − sin a sin a cos 2a = cos² a− sin²a. . . . . . . (1) This is the first of the three versions of cos 2a. To derive the second version, in line (1) use this Pythagorean identity: sin²a = 1 − cos²a. Line (1) then becomes cos 2a = cos²a − (1 − cos²a) = cos²a − 1 + cos²a. cos 2a = 2 cos²a − 1. . . . . . . . . . (2) To derive the third version, in line (1) use this Pythagorean identity: cos² a= 1 − sin²a. We have cos 2 a= 1 − sin² a− sin²a;. cos 2a = 1 − 2 sin²a. . . . . . . . . . (3) These are the three forms of cos 2a.
cos(x+x)=cos(x)cos(x)-sin(x)sin(x)
im always late
\[cos(\theta + \phi) = cos(\theta)cos(\phi) - sin(\theta)sin(\phi)\] So if \(\theta = \phi\) you start getting things simplified very quickly.
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