In humans , dimples is dominant over non – dimples. A man who is homozygous for dimples, has children with a woman who is heterozygous for dimples. What is the chance none of the children will have non- dimples?

Question

anonymous · Answer

iknow itss biology, but i realyy needhelp

anonymous · Answer

:( pleaseeeeee  :(

anonymous · Answer

so the dad is dominate homozygous?

anonymous · Answer

yes

anonymous · Answer

Ok so can you go to http://www.dabbleboard.com/draw?b=Guest665407&i=0&c=aea4df165cb5ea33f2ea8be35be92e1159da9821 I can draw out the problem for you there and explain it to you better

anonymous · Answer

sure thnks

anonymous · Answer

hhello?

anonymous · Answer

There I just replied lol sorry

anonymous · Answer

replyhere cz my internet hs some prob.. just tell me phenotpe nd genotype !

anonymous · Answer

Phenotype= the physical attribute  of the person ( DD would be dimples, Dd would be Dimples (because the D trait is dominant over the d recessive trait), dd would be no dimples)

anonymous · Answer

ok :)

anonymous · Answer

Genotype= the genes that the person has (DD or Dd or dd)

anonymous · Answer

so all of the kids are going to have dimples

anonymous · Answer

o ok

anonymous · Answer

make sense

anonymous · Answer

i wannask you morequestions but i goa goo now . :( when am i able to see you??

anonymous · Answer

uhm can you just post back on this question or email me mmbuckaroos@gmail.com