use l'hopital's rule to solve the limit as it approaches 0 from the right of 3/sinx - 1/x ??
\[ \lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} 3/\sin x - 1/x\]
limit is 0 l'hopitals rule you'll get lim of 0/cos(0) - 0/1 so 0
so 0 is also an indeternminate form?
thanks by the wayyyy!!! :)
no, if the limit is 0, it exists it goes to 0
if it comes out to be 0 / 0 then it's indeternminate
First show that limit is indeterminate, then employ l'hopital's rule lim x->0 (3x-sinx)/(xsinx)
i'm not sure if cyter has it right... i'm pretty sure you deriv instead of integral for l'hopital's rule
this function ends up equaling 0.. thats where i am confused bcuz why do i need to use l'hopitals rule/.
lim of 0/cos(0) - 0/1 ends up zero so the limit is zero but your original equation (the question) is undefined (or indeter.) so you have to apply l'hoptials' rule
It's not 0. You can't use (and don't need) l'Hopital here.
polpak, can you explain your reasoning?
Err wait. It's not 0, but you do need l'hopital
how is my original equation (the question) undefined? 3 over sin(0) - 1 over x = 3 over 0 - 1 over 0 = 0 - 0 = 0 ??
polpak when you get a chance will you come back to that kid who is trying to teach himself
3/0 is not 0 it's undefined. which is why i would do l'hopitals rule but polpak says i'm wrong :x so we'll see what he says first
You don't have 0 - 0, you have \(3/0 - 1/0 = \infty - \infty\)
And you do need lhopital, but you need to first put over a common denominator
ohhhh *faceplam* i forgot limits >< it's "as you approach" not zero thanks polpak yup itenn, polpak's right
\[3/sinx - 1/x = \frac{3x - sinx}{xsinx} \] Which gives a 0 over 0 and you take the derivative of top and bottom.
Give that derivative a try and take the limit as the derivative aproaches 0
I'll brb
thankk you!!!!
so far i have 3 - cos x all over 2 cos x - x sinx
I agree with the numerator, but not the denominator.
Using products rule \[\frac{d}{dx}x(sin\ x) = x(cos\ x) + (sin\ x)\]
Which gives \[\frac{3-cosx}{x(cos\ x) + (sin\ x)}\] Which we can then plug in 0 for x
2/0 ?
Yep, \(2/0^+\)
So \(+\infty\)
why was the first equation indeterminate again.. im sorry im not getting this:(
it was similat to the 2/0+ ... it was 3/0 - 1/0.
Because you had 3/0 - 1/0. Which is \(\infty - \infty\)
And that can be a lot of different things. It could be 0, it could be a constant, or it could be +/- infinity.
So we have to put them over a common denominator to get 0/0 or \(\infty/\infty\) and then use l'Hopital's
to see which infinity is growing faster
ohkay. i did another on my own -- limit x approaches 1 [ x^3 - 1 all over x-1 ]
i got 0/0 and then did derivative of top and bottom 3x^2 over 1
and then i got 3. is that right?
Yep, that's right.
my last problem for l'hopitals rule is limit x approaches 0+ x^x ??
what is the indeterminate form... if 0^0 = 0
It's not 0. If you have \(\lim_{x \rightarrow c} f(x) = 0^0\) then you have to take the \[\lim_{e^x \rightarrow c} ln\ f(x)\]
So in this case you have \[\lim_{e^x \rightarrow 0} x(ln\ x)\] Which is of the form \(0\cdot\infty\)
0^0 is actually an indeterminate form so u can use l'hopital's rule
and 0^0 is not equal to 0
0 * inf is an indeterminate form?
no
polpk, I have a quick question on mine you were helping me with.. when you're done here:)
inf/inf, 0/0, -inf/inf, inf/-inf or 0^0, any of those are indeterminate forms
\(0 * \infty\) is indeterminate.
sometimes wikipedia is unreliable
the next step then would be to take the derivativve?
but after futhre digging I'm convinced
Was gonna say, wolfram alpha also thinks it's indeterminate: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Indeterminate.html
Which next step? I may have a different process for this than cyter.
im following you polpak..
I'm not sure how he was gonna use l'hopital on 0^0 since there's no fraction there, but I'm a bit rusty with this
thats where i confused.. l'hopitals rule has lim f(x)/g(x) and then f'(x)/g'(x)
i dont see a fraction here.
Since \[\lim_{e^x \rightarrow 0} x(ln\ x)\] is not nice, we have to swap our variable around a bit and say u = 1/x if x goes to 0, u goes to infinity. And that means that x = 1/u, so we have now \[\lim_{e^{u} \rightarrow \infty} \frac{ln\ 1/u}{u}\] Which gives us a nice fraction with \(\infty/\infty\) that we can take the derivative of.
this one is very complicated.
Yeah, a bit.
i am not good with derivatices so the ln is trouble for me.. this is hard:(
So \[\frac{d}{du} ln\ 1/u = u*(\frac{-1}{u^2}) = \frac{-1}{u}\]
ohhh okay.
so now we have Erg, my notation is wrong, but it's tiny if I fix it.
what would change?
Anyway, we have It's supposed to be e raised to the power of the limit of that whole thing, not e^u approaches infinity.
So we have \[e^{\lim_{u \rightarrow \infty} \frac{-1}{t}} = e^0 = 1\]
See, tiny.
mm.. at which point?
ohh it was never supposed to be e to the u
Yeah, it was supposed to be e to the limit. That's it. The limit as \(x \rightarrow 0 \text{ of } x^x = 1\)
so no l'hopital is needed??
yes it is. I used it.
This is too difficult with such a tiny font. Lemme try something else
ohkay.
i am confused:(
http://www.dabbleboard.com/draw?b=Guest665733&i=0&c=68e3fba29b21f18d6667a1c196154c7ed4b665ee
im there..
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