Question

prove if u can that 0! is equal to 1?

Answer 1

0! is defined as 1.

QED.

Answer 2

prove it

Answer 3

I think you misunderstand the terms ' definition ' and 'prove'.

Answer 4

You can explain why it 'makes sense' it should be one, but when it comes down it it, it's just defined to be that.

Answer 5

everything has a prove in mathematics ,

Answer 6

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom .

Now shut up please.

Answer 7

see, i can prove it but there is always some "bug". maybe it will work for you but for some other person (who has more knowledge of maths) can prove it wrong.

Answer 8

Prove it.

Answer 9

I mean, like I said there are EXPLANATIONS like this

http://www.adonald.btinternet.co.uk/Factor/Zero.html

But it is different.

Answer 10

prove it ,it does,nt mater ,it will add knowlede

Answer 11

its a convention

Answer 12

lots of math people got together and decided, hey this is going to be the way

Answer 13

but the reason for it , it simplifies many formulas

Answer 14

thanks ,newton it was helpful

Answer 15

so maybe you should ask, whats the reason for the convention, thats a better question,

Answer 16

it can be proved using Gamma function

Answer 17

its just a definition, so you cant ask to prove a definition

Answer 18

or simply using the definition of the n!

Answer 19

you cant prove for example, that a bachelor is unmarried. its a definition

Answer 20

"It can be proved using the definition"


Hmm, sounds like a proof to me (xD)

Answer 21

well n! = n * n-1 *...*3*2*1

Answer 22

theres isnt 0! in it

Answer 23

hehe

Answer 24

i am on my phone so its hard for me to type the whole derivation. or i would have given you

Answer 25

proof, by definition?
ok i guess

Answer 26

but we dont define things just willy nilly. they are usually well good god reasons for it

Answer 27

n!=n(n-1!
put n=1

Answer 28

While you're at it, prove all the axioms please, umza?

And (technically),
\[1! = 1 \times 0! \]
\[2! = 2 \times 1! \]
\[3! = 3 \times 2! \]
...
\[n! = n \times (n-1)! \]

Answer 29

Umza please go learn the definition of 'proof' and come back.

Answer 30

mean?INew

Answer 31

uzma, that doesnt work

Answer 32

ok thank u

Answer 33

uzma , what about 0! = 0 * (0-1)! ?

Answer 34

anyways, i like the binomial series , i think its called pochhammer

Answer 35

(0-1)! does it work?

Answer 36

the reason why we have 0! is because we have
n choose r = n! / ( n-r)! r!

Answer 37

and when you have r = 0, we have n! / n! 0!

Answer 38

the actual proof is done using Gamma function

Answer 39

wait, its false that 0! = 0 * (0-1)!

Answer 40

the proof for what, the bionomial series

Answer 41

oh sorry, i misread the question and thought that you are asking to prove 0 = 1 instead of 0! = 1 lol. its very easy to prove.

Answer 42

OMG yes it's SOOOO EASY to prove - just do it quickly please?

Answer 43

but i don't know to type, its not easy to type "please".

Answer 44

Oh, I thought so.

Answer 45

i'm back!!! are you guys there. lol