Question

what's it called exactly when you square or cube a function not a root because that'd be the opposite but...?

Answer 1

its called 'squaring or cubing' a function

Answer 2

oh ahahah okay thought there was more to it

Answer 3

got time for another question?

Answer 4

AN HOUR OR SO

Answer 5

nothing like a caap lock to set the mood lol

Answer 6

okay perfect, ok first of all do you see the graph right before "Forced Vibrations with damping?" on this webite http://www.ltcconline.net/greenl/courses/204/appsHigherOrder/forcedVibrations.htm

Answer 7

yes, the sin in a cone

Answer 8

yes, okay I have a similar problem like the same idea basically but these are the points and i have to find the equation: (-.75, 0) ..(.-5, -.7906)..(-.25, -.8724)..(0,0)..(.25, .90461)... (.5, .94868)...(.75,0)...(1, -1.039)..(1.25, -1.088) ..(1.5,0) ..(1.75, 1.1915) ..(2, 1.2471) and (2.25,0)

Answer 9

yeah, i remember those :) dampened waves is not my cup o tea, nor is the differentials yet. gonna have to ask someone smarter

Answer 10

pretty much you hav to find the peaks and valleys to draw the 'cone' from and determine its linear equation to help out

Answer 11

hmm okay, well are you good at natural log functions like ln(x) stuff?

Answer 12

im adequate with log functions

Answer 13

ok so f(x)=(x)/ln(x) basically how does each algebraic piece, so the only algebra in this is the numerator of x on the top, affect each part of its graph so when x<0, 0<x<1 and x>0

Answer 14

this is pretty much a graph with the slope of \({1\over ln(x)}\)

Answer 15

so for example when x<0 it looks more like the x part because...type of thing

Answer 16

right so its the inverse of ln(x)?

Answer 17

not the inverse; that would be the graph of 'e'; its the 'flipped over the xaxis' graph of ln(x)

Answer 18

oh okay, so how do i explain this, so first when x<0 it acts like the ln(x) function because all y values still come out to be ERROR/undefined, right? and when 0<x<1..hm

Answer 19

we have a vertical asymptote at x=0 becasue the ln(x) function has no value for x=0 and below

Answer 20

we have a vertical asymptote at x=0 becasue the ln(x) function has no value for x=0 and below....that is why when x<0 is acts like ln(x)?

Answer 21

it acts like 1/ln(x) for small values of x becasue that part takes control

Answer 22

for large values of x; 1/ln(x) plaays less part in it

Answer 23

when you say takes control what specifically do you mean

Answer 24

same thing you stated really; the control of the function get governed by the part that becomes dominate for its corresponding value of x

Answer 25

oh you mean the y values are bigger is that what you mean by dominate/take over?

Answer 26

when you say it takes control for small values of x you mean negative x values?

Answer 27

i mean lose to 0

Answer 28

err.. close to 1; since ln(1) = 0

Answer 29

so wait...When 0<x<1, the graph of the function is closer to 1/ln(x) for smaller values of x because that part takes control, in other words gets closer and closer to 1?

Answer 30

gets closer and closer to infinity

Answer 31

when I use my calculator from .1 to .9 are all negative numbers so that can't be right

Answer 32

:/

Answer 33

anything less than 1 is gonna be a negative # i think

Answer 34

right so its not approaching infinity..its approaching negative infinity right?

Answer 35

as it approaches 1 from the right it goes thru the roof; from the left it goes thru the floor; to say infinity just tends to imply that its going in either direction really

Answer 36

infinity is infinity; if your on the negative side, then yeah, its -inf ...

Answer 37

When 0<x<1, the graph of the function is closer to 1/ln(x) for smaller values of x because as x gets bigger, y gets infinitely negative. ?

Answer 38

correct

Answer 39

and then for larger values of x it looks more like ln(x) than 1/ln(x) when 0<x<1?

Answer 40

no; stilll 1/ln(x) just on the + side

Answer 41

err.. i gotta learn to read better

Answer 42

for larger values of x; we get less and less out of it

Answer 43

what do you mean

Answer 44

1/ln(1,000,000,000) = .04825....

1/ln(1,000,000,000,000) = .03619.....

Answer 45

you are taking a fraction of a larger number not a smaller so the difference is not as big?

Answer 46

something like that....

100(.1) = 10

100(.01) = 1

so it still has control over it to an extent but the function still grows to infinity over the long haul

Answer 47

and finally when x>0 it looks more like the ln(x) part because..hm let me look..

Answer 48

as x approaches infinity..hm

Answer 49

:/