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Mathematics 8 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

do intergers form a group? explain

OpenStudy (anonymous):

no u can't find any integer b for an integer a such that a*b=1 except for 1

OpenStudy (anonymous):

thats it?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I can not write you the formal proof. But you just need to make sure that integers fit all the axioms of a group. Namely: \[\forall a,b,c \in Z\] a*b is in Z (a*b)*c=a*(b*c) An identity element e such that e*a=a*e=a An inverse element such that a*b=b*a=1 (or the identity for that group)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Where * denotes an operation (typically addition or multiplication)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

malevolence19 .....has written correctly the definition of a group but the 3dr condition doers not hold for inverse so it can't be a group.... if a,b both are integers and the condition a*b=b*a=1 holds then b=1/a...which is a fraction...for a>1...and not belongs to the integer group....

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Exactly. :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

The integers are not a group under multiplication but they are under addition. For instance: a+b is always an integer (a+b)+c=a+(b+c) 0+a=0+a=a a+b=b+a=0 (i.e., b=-a) So it does form a group under addition.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Dip correct me if i'm wrong D:

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes....u did it under addition but i did it under multiplication...thats y our ans. differs.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I was just making sure I wasn't telling him wrong! :D

OpenStudy (anonymous):

but i was also correct from my point of view....

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Yes :P

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Both correct just different contexts

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