Can the intermediate-value theorem be used to show there is a solution the equation f (x) = 0 on the interval [0, π⁄2 ]? Give an explanation why. F(x) = 2sin(x) - 3cos(x) -x^2
a) No. because f (0) > 0 and f ( π⁄2 ) > 0. b) No, because f (0) < 0 and f ( π⁄2 ) < 0. c) Yes, because f (0) > 0 and f ( π⁄2 ) < 0. d) Yes. because f (0) < 0 and f ( π⁄2 ) > 0.
replace x by 0 and also by \[\frac{\pi}{2}\]
if one is positive and the other answer is negative, then the function must be zero somewhere in between.
\[f(0)=2\sin(0)-3\cos(0)-0^2=0-3-0=-3\]
just taking this all in.
\[f(\frac{\pi}{2})=2-0-(\frac{\pi}{2})^2\]\]
the function is continuous yes? so it does not skip values
if it is say 3 at some point and then -2 at some other point it must take on all values in the interval from -2 to 3. unfortunately in this case both answers are negative
what is the 2nd value after plugging in pi/2?
first plug in 0. i got -3 did you?
then plug in \[\frac{\pi}{2}\]
yes
i got \[2-(\frac{\pi}{2})^2\]
i got both, since one is pos and the other neg it must cross the x axis
actually no
-3 is negative
I got 2sin(pi/2/0 -3 cos(pi/2) -(pi/x)^2
and so is \[2-(\frac{\pi}{2})^2\]
\[F(x) = 2\sin(x) - 3\cos(x) -x^2\] \[F(\frac{\pi}{2}) = 2\sin(\frac{\pi}{2}) - 3\cos(\frac{\pi}{2}) -(\frac{\pi}{2})^2\]
\[=2-(\frac{\pi}{2})^2\]
whoops missed the 2, for pi/2 for sin
got it now!
but this is negative also. i just checked
so both values are negative, so we don't know whether it crossed the axis or not
yes it is
got it
answer b is correct.
therefore IVT cannot explain
zactly
got another one, going to do it meow
thank you, that was very clear!
i'm ready. let me get my beer
haha!!!!
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