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Mathematics 22 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

is this a proof that n! > n^2 for n>= 4 So we assume that k^2 < k! Notice that that k>1 is equivalent to 2k+1 < 3k It follows that k>= 4 we have 2k+1 < 3k < (k)! k Now using the assumption k^2 < k! we have k^2 +(2k+1) < k! +(2k+1) + k! +(k)! k=(k+1)! So (k+1)^2 < (k+1)!

OpenStudy (amistre64):

got no idea, proofs and me are mortal enemies, anything that involves reasoning over common sense is for the birds ;)

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