in integrating lnx dx why is the v=x?
v=x?
how do i solve \[\int\limits_{?}^{?} lnx dx\]
you need to do integration by parts
by parts sorry
u know integral by parts?
using 1 dx and lnx as your dv and u
yes. i know integration by parts. but how to know when we use integration by parts?
when a product of functions is ther or when u dont see any other method..when the integral is not a known form
usually i resort to integration by parts when there is no other easier method to solve the integral such as substitution or partial fractions
because when u integrate by parts yu need u and dv and for u ... the priority is for ( logarithms then inverses then algebraic then trigonometric then exponentials) so its 1*lnx dx so for u you choose lnx since logarithms hav the highest priority and for dv you choos 1* dx then u find du and v so integrating dv=dx u get v=x u use by parts when u hav two fxns multiplied by eachother
i see. and when do we use substitution?
subsitution is usually the first thing i try out since it is easy to test and look for
u can use anything as long as it simplifies ur integral..that knowledge only comes with practice
also check if you can break up the numerator
ok. another question sorry.: why is the integral of e^-x is -e^-x?
why is it negative?
use substitution
because integration of e^f(x) = e^f(x)/ f '(x)
with u = -x then du = -1
du=-1 dx*
and remember that d/dx e^x = e^x then its antiderivative is also true that \[\int\limits_{}^{}e^x =e^x\]
if you take d/dx -e^-x you will see that it will become e^-x
ok. how do I solve this?..sorry got a test tomorrow need to have great score.\[\int\limits_{0}^{1} \arctan x dx\] :
the same thing that you do to solve for \[\int\limits_{}^{}lnx dx\]
still integration by parts?
(im ignoring the limits of integration since its simple plug in numbers) but integration by parts since it isnt a antiderivative of a easily known trig function
so you take u = tanx and dv = dx
you can also imagine it as \[\int\limits_{}^{}arctanx (1) dx\]
why is the u only tanx? why not arctan x?
and becomes du = csc^2 and so forth
o whoops i mean arctan
=)
I am confused with \[\int\limits_{?}^{?} e^x cosx dx\]. I already started solving but i'm stuck with \[\int\limits_{?}^{?} sinx e^x dx\]
this one is a special case of integration by parts
do you know how to use the table method for integration by parts?
well i call it the table method i think it has a name
table method? no. i never heard of that.
what is it?
you make 2 columns, one for u and one for dv
hmm, it takes a bit of explainning
thanks. really. one more thing do u know where i can get examples for integration using power substitution? i didn't get a lot of examples from my search.
well i dont think its nesscary to solve by parts but it makes it faster if you need to do by parts multiple times
power substitution?
yes. my teacher called it as power substitution. it has square roots.
from your earlier problem of \[\int\limits_{ }^{ }e^xcosx dx\]you need to do by parts twice and then add the similar terms together and then divide by two
so i need to do another by part with\[\int\limits_{?}^{?} sinx e^x dx?\]
well square roots are the same thing as powers like x(2x^2-3x)^(1/2) can be easily seen through with substitution
yep
you should get \[\int\limits_{ }^{} sinx e^x dx = uv - \int\limits_{}^{}vdu\]
how do you know what to substitute?
but when you take \[\int\limits_{ }^{ } v du\] you get an addition by parts with \[- \int\limits_{}^{}sinx e^x dx\] which you use to add to both sides and divide by 2
if you see a grouped function and its derivative outside that grouped function you can use substitution
so like x(x^2-3) you can take a sub with the x^2-3
constants can be easily adjusted to fit the sub if nessecary
so you would get du = 2x but theres only a x but you can also write x as 2x/2
in my earlier problem: i came up again with e^xsinx+ e^x cosx + \[\int\limits\limits_{?}^{?} cosx e^x dx\] and i was stuck with the cosx e^x dx
yes.
i finished the last part and that should be the final answer for that problem http://www.twiddla.com/565703
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