Can someone explain me why the following limit is equal to 1 w/o using L'Hospital 's rule?
\[lin_{h \rightarrow 0} {\sin(h) \over h} = 1\]
it's an identity.. and the only way to prove it is l'hopital.. i may be mistaken but thats the only way that i know how to prove that..
as sin(h) gets really small; its about equal to "h"; and the smaller it gets the closer to 1 it gets
type in sin(.00000001)/.00000001 and see what the calc gives yah
I get the intuitive idea, but is there any algebraic way?
that is the algeraic way i think; it just is what it is :)
you have an maybe if we express h in terms of radians? or is it already in terms of radians?
you have to use something called the "Squeeze theorem"
@amistre the only way this is true is if h is in "radians". as a function, sine is a function of numbers, not of "degrees" or "radians". just like \[f(x)=x^2+1\] is a function of numbers. as such, it corresponds to the usual trig ratios of sides of triangles only if the angles are measured in radians
and in fact, if you are using "degrees" as your input, the derivative of sine is NOT cosine. really.
the basic geometric argument boils down to saying that \[\cos(x)<\frac{sin(x)}{x}<1\] near 0, and then as \[x->0\] the left hand side goes to 1 as well and therefore the limit is 1. but if you want a simple snap proof WITHOUT using derivatives there is not one.
if you've had anlayss consider a sequence \[(x_n) \rightarrow 0 \] and use the continuity proof for \[(f(x_n)) \rightarrow f(x)\] and show that converges to 1 using a conventional \[\epsilon - \delta\] proof . If your more versed with topology you could define the filter converging to 0 and apply the function to it in a similar manner.
with the filter showing it converges to1
Thanks a lot. That was one of the most clever proofs that I have ever seen. It was beautiful, too.
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