Alchemista can you please take a look at this?
http://assets.openstudy.com/updates/attachments/4e1ca72a0b8bc227574897e4-bahrom7893-1310500752834-image197.jpg What do I do next?
Well since the square of the function is always positive, the integral will be positive as well.
I can't just integrate that, that's some function..
Also the zero function is always 0, the integral of the 0 function will be 0. So you can show that for the 0 vector the inner product will be 0
really? But if it's like x^2 right then integral is x^3/3 that's not necessarily positive..
maybe use the fact that (x(t))^2 is always an even function? even if x(t) is odd?
(x^3/3)^2 I don't see the problem.
No no if the function itself is x right, then (x)^2 = x^2
Integral of that x^3/3
\[\langle f(x) , f(x) \rangle = \int_{-1}^{1} f(x)^2\]
ohh i see from -1 to 1 it cannot be negative..
it can't be negative at all. f(x) is some number some number squared is positive.
okay thanks!
how do I prove the 2nd part? that it;s 0 only if the function itself is 0?
remember this is a vector space, the 0 vector is the 0 function
if you take the integral of a function thats always 0 its obviously 0
Ohh I see..
You guys won't see me for a while now, I know how to solve the next question..
ok
gogo :)
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