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i need help plz
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take the derivative.
no then just solve for: f'(x) = 0
i lookd at the solution manual it says something about rolles theorem
oh Rolle's theorem.. I forgot what it says.. let me check..
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okyy :D
im here miss
If a real-valued function ƒ is continuous on a closed interval [a, b], differentiable on the open interval (a, b), and ƒ(a) = ƒ(b), then there exists a c in the open interval (a, b) such that f'(x) = 0
plug in 0 and 1 into ur function they both yield the value zero. so f(0) = f(1)
yea him is right if F(0) =F(1) then according to rolle's theorem there's f'(c) = 0
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this means that f'(x) is zero atleast once in the given interval
got it lana?
lol thts easier thn i thout thnxxxxx him nd bahrom
anytime fr u
yur the besttttt
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