For which \(a\) does the following series converge?
\[\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n(\ln n)^a}\]
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
For which \(a\) does the following series converge?
\[\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n(\ln n)^a}\]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
i think for "a" from (0,+inf)
OpenStudy (anonymous):
does not converge for a=1
OpenStudy (anonymous):
I can tell you that it converges for a>= 2 but I don't know the reason yet
OpenStudy (anonymous):
We might have to use comparison test
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OpenStudy (zarkon):
integral test
OpenStudy (zarkon):
have you figured it out yet :)
OpenStudy (zarkon):
foods ready..be back
OpenStudy (zarkon):
a>1
OpenStudy (anonymous):
\[a_n=\left(\frac{1}{n*\text{Log}[n]^2}\right)\]
\[b_n=\frac{1}{n^2}\]
\[\frac{a_n}{b_n}\] as n goes to infinity
\[\frac{\left(\frac{1}{n*\text{Log}[n]^2}\right)}{\frac{1}{n^2}}\]
\[n\rightarrow \infty \]\[\frac{n}{\text{Log}[n]^2}\] =0
According to rules two of limit comparison test , it converge
http://archives.math.utk.edu/visual.calculus/6/series.9/index.html
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OpenStudy (zarkon):
is should converge for a=2 since it converges for all a>1