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Mathematics 20 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

If we know....

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a _{n}\] Converges

OpenStudy (anonymous):

What, (if anything) can be known about: \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(1/a _{n})\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Hi!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So converge means it sums up to a number

OpenStudy (anonymous):

right.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

But that number could also be zero so the statement that the 2nd summation also adds up to a real number is not true

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hmm...this is a little confusing to me lol. a_n could converge to 0, but the series could converge to something else. For example, lets say: \[a_n = (\frac{1}{2})^n\] The sequence converges to 0, but the series converges to: \[\frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{2}} = 2\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

You confusing what sequence converging vs what series converges to

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so in that example: \[\frac{1}{a_n} = \frac{1}{(\frac{1}{2})^n} = 2^n\] and we know this sequence and series doesnt converge.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

From my understanding the only way the series will converge is if a_n is just a constant or if it is/simplifies to a form similar to 1/n (convergence to 0)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i guess if \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_n\] converges, we dont know anything about the other summation.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if a_n is constant, the series wont converge: \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}1 = 1+1+1+1+1+1+\cdots\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

The sequence converges, but not the series.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok

OpenStudy (anonymous):

You're definitely confusing convergence of sequences and convergence of series. A sequence converges when \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}a_{n}=L\] For some L. A series converges when the series equals a number. So \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{n}=L\] For some L, when that happens the sequence converges to 0. However there are also sequences that converge to 0 but whose series diverge.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So back to the question. \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a _{n}\] converges so \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}a_{n}=0\] and thus \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{a_{n}}=\infty\] which gives us the result: \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{a _{n}}\] diverges.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hmmm

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Ok good to note the specification between the two

OpenStudy (anonymous):

But I think what you're saying is sub consciously what I was thinking

OpenStudy (anonymous):

lim a_n=0 means any number put in for n will yield 0, so because of that we know the lim 1/(a_n) will always yield 1/0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Which also means it is divergent

OpenStudy (anonymous):

lim a_n=0 means any number put in for n will yield 0 that's not true. for example \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{n}=0\] but \[\frac{1}{n}\neq 0\] for all n.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hmm

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So how are you concluding it is divergent?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Do you agree with this: \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{a_{n}}=\infty\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{a_{n}}=0\] if the series where to converge. But apparently that's not true.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

It would depend on what a_n is

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if a_n is n then as n -> infin. then yes L = 0

OpenStudy (zarkon):

@ Thomas9 no I don't agree with that statement. that \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{a_{n}}=\infty\]

OpenStudy (zarkon):

consider the sequence \[a_n=\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\] clearly \[\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=0\] but \[\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{1}{a_n}\] does not exist. It is not infinity. the important thing here is that the limit is not zero...that's all we need for the sum to diverge.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I follow there

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So could this statement be a suitable answer in your opinion: "Becuase series 1 is convergent, lim of a_n as n->inf. = 0"

OpenStudy (anonymous):

"Since lim of a_n as n->inf. = 0, then we also know lim of 1/a_n as n->inf. = 0"

OpenStudy (anonymous):

* = DNE (not 0 for the second.)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

"Which allows us to conclude that the 2nd series is divergent"

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Ill write it out with equations..

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Zarkon is right, I went a little too fast there. Also your argument is fine like this mwmnj.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Because: \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a _{n}\] Converges, we know: \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}a _{n}=0\] Which also make this the following true: \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(1/a _{n})=DNE\] Which means: \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(1/a _{n})\] is divergent

OpenStudy (zarkon):

no... \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(1/a _{n})\] might be infinity...or -infinity...or maybe it just doesn't exist at all all we care about is that the limit is not zero..thus this sum cannot converge

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