Use Laplace transforms to solve the following initial value problem: (dy/dt)− y = e^t ... y(0) = 1
guess what, you need to laplace transform both sides of the equation first.
yeah i get that tommy...but its the end part that gets me. i get ... (s/(s-1)^2) but now i gotta invert it to find for y but i cant simplify my answer to do so.
Hold on, I haven't done this in while :)
okay, thanks :)
you need to make two fractions of s/(s-1)^2 like this: \[\frac{s}{(s-1)^{2}}=\frac{A}{s-1}+\frac{B}{s-1}\] So you need to figure out A and B.
A(s-1)+b(s-1)=s
Actually it doesn't work like that for this particular fraction. wolfram alpha says: \[\frac{s}{(s-1)^{2}}=\frac{1}{s-1}+\frac{1}{(s-1)^2}\]
Now you can invert it.
s/(s-1)^2 Where does this come from, please explain...)
A(s-1)+b(s-1)=s
After the laplace transform you get:\[sY-1-Y=\frac{1}{s-1}\] with a little algebra you get \[Y=\frac{s}{(s-1)^2}\]
I didn't do the algebra part ;)
Are u supposed to just read them from a list..? I had 1-1/s = 1/s+1 (probably I am reading it wrong)
You can read them from a table, or memorize them, or use the definition to find transform. But these are pretty standard.
Assume I know nothing....
I have a table here, is it the right one..?
So u(t) = y = 1/s, is that right?
well that's what wikipedia says, I'm confused about the u(t) part.
I was assuming that u is just a dummy for x or y or whatever... It's how you go from the equation to sY-1-Y= 1/s-1 I don't get..
the laplace transfrom of all those things in the table is the same without u(t).
anyway, Y is the laplace transform y.
It's unknown at this point. the laplace transfrom of the derivate of a function is s*(the laplace transfrom of that function)-f(0)
and the laplace transform of e^t is 1/(s-1)
So in the table it says 1/s+alpha....
where alpha is coefficient in e^at so in this case 1, no?
-1
So the table is wrong?
Can u direct me to a good table?
the table is right, it says e^-at=1/s+a, so you need -1 for a to e^t.
Ah, blind......:-)
ok, that's the right hand side, how about he left?
Well you can take the laplace transform each of the terms seperately.
so L(y)=Y, L(dy/dt)=sY-y(0)=sY-1
Aah...so you end up with Y in terms of s, I see now...
right, then you can transform back to t.
Thank u muchly:-)
you're welcome :)
Thanks to both of you. I tried the same partial fraction as you Thomas9. Your other method cleared it up nicely. Thanks a million!!!
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