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Mathematics 21 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

How does the limit [1 + (1/x)]^x as x -> ± ∞ equal "e"? <-- Euler's number..

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Because it gets closer and closer to 2.718.

OpenStudy (amistre64):

\[(1+(1/x))^x\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

actually, it is [1 + 1/x]^x

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yea amistre is right, so how..

OpenStudy (anonymous):

How can I convince myself that this is true through algebra or calculus?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Calculus. :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Hang on a second: how can you take the limit of 1/x inside the bracket, when the whole thing is being raised to the power of "x"?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

it is 3 more or less by definition

OpenStudy (anonymous):

?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i meant e of course

OpenStudy (anonymous):

OK I have my piece of paper, pencil and calculator out right now. Tell me how I should proceed with convincing myself that this is true.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[e=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}(1+\frac{1}{n})^n\] is one definition

OpenStudy (anonymous):

it depends on what your definition of "e" is. it it is the one i wrote, then there is nothing to prove.

OpenStudy (zarkon):

still requires proof that the limit actually converges

myininaya (myininaya):

click show steps

OpenStudy (anonymous):

really if you want to make sense out of it you need to say what e is. the wolfram steps are silly in this case

myininaya (myininaya):

lol

OpenStudy (anonymous):

but zarkon is right. what you need to show is that it converges to something. it does, and we call that something "e" so to say it converges to e is a tautology, unless you have some other definition of e

myininaya (myininaya):

you also said an algebraic way you can always see that the limit is getting close to e by taking large and larger values of x and plugging it in

OpenStudy (anonymous):

argh you can show that it gets closer and closer to some number. if you want, you can call that number e

OpenStudy (zarkon):

let's say \[e=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{1}{n!}\] ;)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if i recall proof is not trivial.. you have to show it is increasing and bounded above. i think the bounded above part is easy though

OpenStudy (zarkon):

very easy to show convergence with my def

OpenStudy (anonymous):

how about \[\int_0^e\frac{dt}{t}=1\] as a definition?

OpenStudy (zarkon):

that one is nice too

OpenStudy (anonymous):

what gets my goat is calc problems like this where you are supposed to take the log, use l'hopital, and then exponentiate and say "oh look, i got e!" going around in circles

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