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x = 4
\[2 \sin ^2 x - coz x -1 = 0 for 0 \le x < 2\pi. \]
gimmick is to rewrite \[\sin^2(x)=1-\cos^2(x)\] and then get a quadratic in cosine
\[2(1-\cos^2(x))-\cos(x)-1=0\] \[2-2\cos^2(x)-\cos(x)-1=0\] \[2\cos^2(x)+\cos(x)-1=0\] and then solve as if it was \[2z^2+z-1=0\]
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thanks again for your input satellite73! the question states that the answer should be in terms of pi. does this change the calculation?
no. just solve for z, and substitute Cos(x) in when you get your answer. Take inverse cosine and you will get your X term in terms of pi.
thanks mathandphysics! you guys are life-savers! much appreciated.
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