Before a market study, there is a 70% chance that the market will be good. When the market is good, the study has a track record of predicting a good market 85% of the time. When the market is bad, the study has a track record of predicting a good market 20% of the time. Given that the study has predicted a good market, what is the probability that the market is actually good?
or rather: .....what is the probability that the market will actually be good?
baye's formula?
yep
i tend to do a table, rather than the formula itself ...
i get lost in the P(B|A')s and P(A|B)s and such lol
actually that is always confusing. i am going to write down what i think the answer is, and then how i got it i think it is \[\frac{.85\times .7}{.85\times .7+.2\times .3}\]
\begin{array}l &&&&prior:&70\%&30\%\\ &+&-&\\ good\ markt&[85\%]&15\%&\\ bad\ market&20\%&80\%&\\ \end{array} .85*.70 = .5950 / X <--- +.20*.30 = .0600 ---------------- X = .6550 P(answer) = .595/.060 yep, same answers :)
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