I repost question :D (old question deleted, plz give a try to this question its hard :D ) USing the mean value theorem prove that: \[2e ^{-1/4}\le \int\limits_{0}^{2}e^{-r^2-r}dr \le 2e^2\]
mean value theorem of calculus : \[\int\limits_{a}^{b}f(x)dx = f(x)(b-a)\]
doesn't look true to me
why?
(this question is taken from ODTU's (Thecnical University of Orta Dogu ) calculus final exam ^.^
\[2e^{-1/4}\approx1.5576\] \[\int\limits_{0}^{2}e^{-r^2-r}dr\approx.545178\]
you see its true ^.^ but prove that by using mean value theorem :)
but i did a mistake at mean value theorem s0zi it should be .... =f(c)(b-a)
how is \[1.5576\le .545178\]?
is this 0.5.... or 5.4.....??
0.54517827464201
ahh k now i see -.-'
(lol @ me i red .54.... as 5.4 -.-')
ok i give up ...
I would give up to since\[2e ^{-1/4}\le \int\limits_{0}^{2}e^{-r^2-r}dr \le 2e^2\] is not true
*too
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