Prove using mathematical induction that 3 divides n(n+1)(n+2). I have the first step for n=1, and then assume 3 divides k(k+1)(k+2), k being an integer. I'm now at the next step of trying to prove 3 divides (k+1)(k+2)(k+3) and am stuck.
how did you prove the first part :)
or are we just to assume the k(k+1)(k+2) is divisible by 3
I have 1(1+1)(1+2)=6 which divides into 3. And then k=n, for k(k+1)(k+2). The examples from my prof go from showing n=1 to assuming the statement for k, then plugging in k+1 for k and solving from there...
Assume n=k is valid and sub into n=k+1
if (k+1)(k+2)(k+3) is a scalar of k(k+1)(k+2); then id say it goes
how do I prove that it is a scalar?
dunno, havent done any induced proofs k+1 k+2 ---- k(k^2 +3k +2) (k+1)(k^2 +3k +2) perhaps?
err, (k+3)(k^2 +3k +2)
I have that much so far. Basically I am trying to get that to reduce to k(k+1)(k+2) plus whatever is left which 3 should divide into. k(k+1)(k+2) is already assumed divide by 3 that
(k+1)(k+2)(k+3)=1/3 (3k+1)(k+2) (k+1) proved
I'm not really following that.... How did you get that?
you want to show in third step that it is divisible by 3 that I have shown you
if you now now multiply (3k+1)(k+2)(k+1), whatever you will get it must be divisible by 3
because 1/3 is now thier factor
Ok, I see. I wasn't sure where the 1/3 came from. Thanks
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