what is the answer to this question: y= integral of (e^x^2) dx from 0 to infinity
6?
explain how please....
oh never mind it says from 0 to infinity right?
yes sir
\[\infty\]
please show your steps....thank you
you do the integration by parts, but there is no reason to because this thing gets huge
what zarkon said. think of what the graph of \[y=e^x\] looks like
no what that this integral converges
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yes i know the graph of y=e^x but i need the full solution to this problem
\[e^{x^2}\ge1\] for all \[x\ge 0\]
@zarkon got a better explanation?
\[\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{x^2}dx\ge\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}1dx=\infty\]
i already know the answer to this problem from wolfram but need to know the steps to solve it
oh i even read the problem wrong. i thought it said \[\int_0^{\infty} x^2e^x dx\] i am going to make a bet. my bet is that the question is \[\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx\]
that would make for a more interesting problem
yes sir thats the problem
this question is from advanced statistics class
write as a double integral and integrate in polar coordinates
zarkon...please show your method
\[I=\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx\] \[I^2=\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{-y^2}dy\] \[I^2=\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{-(x^2+y^2)}dxdy\] now switch to polar coordinates
but that would give me r^2 instead of x^2 and put me back to same problem
\[I^2=\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{-(x^2+y^2)}dxdy\] \[I^2=\int\limits_{0}^{\pi/2}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{-r^2}r\,dr\,d\theta\] \[I^2=\int\limits_{0}^{\pi/2}\left[-\frac{1}{2}e^{-r^2}\right]_{0}^{\infty}\,d\theta\] \[I^2=\int\limits_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{1}{2}\,d\theta=\frac{\pi}{4}\] \[I=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\]
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