Assest the validity of the following statement: For all integrals m & n with m is opposite of -n & +n, and integral (cosm(t)cosn(t)dt)=0 from -pi to pi ???
hey one sec i did this before
let me see if i can find it
yeaaaaaaay
can't wait because i don't even understand the question
lol
http://openstudy.com/users/myininaya#/users/myininaya/updates/4e6977100b8b4a2b95d0ce28
wooww and how do you know that "we also know that thing?"
i was just using identities we have \[\cos(x+y)=\cos(x)\cos(y)-\sin(x)\sin(y)\] and \[\cos(x-y)=\cos(x)\cos(y)+\sin(x)\sin(y)\] adding these equations together we get \[\cos(x+y)+\cos(x-y)=2\cos(x)\cos(y)+0\] \[\cos(x+y)+\cos(x-y)=2\cos(x)\cos(y)\]
multiply 1/2 on both sides and get \[\frac{1}{2}[\cos(x+y)+\cos(x-y)]=\cos(x)\cos(y)\]
\[\cos(x)\cos(y)=\frac{1}{2}[\cos(x+y)+\cos(x-y)]\] \[\cos(m \theta) \cos(n \theta)=\frac{1}{2}[\cos(m \theta+n \theta)+\cos(m \theta- n \theta)]\] \[\cos(m \theta) \cos(n \theta)=\frac{1}{2}[\cos([m+n] \theta)+\cos([m-n] \theta)]\]
so is this the answer ? or that one
what do you mean?
i went through the whole thing on the other thread i just put some more steps on this one because you asked so what do you mean which is the answer?
ohh okk got it. thank youu!
the whole thing from both threads is the answer this is a proof
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