Question

Does anyone know why △△ψ=0 implies a solution in polar coordinates under the form ψ(r, θ) = SIGMA( f(θ) r^λi)

Answer 1

is that laplacian of si =0?

Answer 2

BiLaplacian of Psi yes

Answer 3

Bilaplacian??

Answer 4

Yes, Laplacian of Laplacian of psi

Answer 5

ok

Answer 6

In polar coordinates, it's under the form (∂^2/∂r^2+1/r ∂/∂r +1/r^2 ∂^2/∂θ^2)^2 ψ=0

Answer 7

No One?

Answer 8

No One?

Answer 9

Thanks anyway....

Answer 10

you can use psi(r,theta)=f(theta)*R(r) and proceed...

Answer 11

No One?

Answer 12

okay thanks