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Algebraically explain the inverse of sin(x). i.e. y=1/x and the inverse of this function is x=1/y. Explain your reasoning.
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I don't think this is possible, and I think this is a valid answer too.
be careful with it, because the sine function is many to one.
the inverse of sin(x) is expressed as sin^-1(x) or arcsin(x).
so if you take arcsin(sin(x))| -pi/2 <= x <= pi/2, you should get x
okay i see where the book is going with this I think
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The explanation I think they want: y=sin x and the inverse of this function is x=arcsin y therefor inverse sine (or arcsin) is an operation that translates from a given y that is the sin of some x, back to the original x.
make a table of values for each equation. then graph y=/x/+4
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