Integral of sin(x)*cos(x)
u = cos x and du = -sin x
but if i change u = sin x du = cos x you will get 1/2 sin^2 x but why isn't this right?
the answer is -1/2 cos^2 x
let sinx=t then cosx dx=dt \[\int\limits_{?}^{?}tdt =t^2=c=\sin^2x\]
u=sinx du=cosx\[\int\limits udu=u^2/2+C=(\sin^2x)/2+C\] or u=cos x du=-sinx\[\int\limits -udu=-u^2/2+C=(-\cos^2x)/2+C\] I guess they are the same...
the strange this is that they aren't the same :O
oh because sin^2x=1-cos^x=-cos^2+c so this happens because it is indefinite. the constant C is 1
oehhh you lost me there with your sin^2x=1-cos^x=-cos^2+c
As long as they only differ by a constant is's ok to get different answers. This happens a lot in more advanced intregals that require integration by parts. \[\sin^2x+\cos^2x=1\]\[\sin^2x=1-\cos^2\] which, because 1 is a constant, we can write as \[\sin^2=C-\cos^2x=-\cos^x+C\] where here C=1
Once again, this is also because this is an indefinite integral and so requires a "+C". If it were a definite integral you would probably get into complications of some sort here.
hmm... but i can use the 0.5sin^2 x? or is this just wrong? because everyone uses the -0.5cos^2 x
I don't see why not... take the derivative of 0.5sin^2(x)+C=sin(x)cos(x) so 0.5sin^2(x) is clearly an anti-derivative of sin(x)cos(x).
i thought so too! hmm.. weird that wolfram alpha also gives the answer of -0.5cos^2 x and not the sin x version but thank you for your explanation
yeah I just looked at wolfram as well, seems weird. Hopefully your teacher can answer, or if you see JamesJ on this site ask him, he's one of the best.
oke will do :D thanks :)
<3
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