lim x tends to 0+ (sin x)^x=??
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} ( sinx)^{x}=??\]
.......
1
Well, \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} x^x = 1\] and we know that sin x / x --> 1 as x --> 0, so intuitively we would expect that \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} (\sin x)^x = 1\] Now to prove it.
??how?
so
First take the ln of the expression and we have \[\ln( (\sin x)^x ) = x \ln(\sin x) = { \ln(\sin x) \over 1/x}\] Now numerator and denominator go to zero as x --> 0+. Let's apply l'Hopital's rule; then this last term is equal to \[{ \cos x / \sin x \over -1/x^2} = x \cos x . {x \over \sin x}\]
Now the limit of each of these three terms respectively is 0, 1 and 1 hence \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} \ln((\sin x)^x) = 0\]
sorry, dropped the minus sign, but the result is the same.
Now. If \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} f(x) = A\] then \[lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} e^{f(x)} = e^A
\[lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} e^{f(x)} = e^A \]
and so you're done.
srry i am not allowed to use l hospital rule
In that case, bound sin x above and below by some functions, f(x) and g(x) such that \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} f(x)^x = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0+} g(x)^x = 1.\] For example, for 0 < x < 1, \[\sin x \leq x \]
and we know that x^x has limit 1 as x -->0+
Now you need a lower bound for sin x, g(x) where you can calculate the limit of g(x)^x
oh cmplicated
For example g(x) = x/10 will work. I.e., for 0 < x < 1 \[{x \over 10} \leq \sin x \leq x\] hence \[\left({x \over 10}\right)^x \leq (\sin x)^x \leq x^x\]
and limit of both functions on either side as x --> 0+ is 1. Hence the limit we want is 1.
what happened to your picture btw?
?
your profile pic
it was good. Anyway, this is how I think you have to calculate your limit.
isnt the pic good?
the new one? It's fine.
But the old one was better if you ask me. But anyway.
:)
hey James can you help me see where I messed up? The question if from sonofa_nh, you can scroll down to find it.
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} e ^{(1/x*\log x)}\]
=??
post as new question
k
@James: I am not sure, but should we necessarily need to apply L'hospital here? \[ \ln((\sin x)x)=x \ln(\sin x) \] now, applying the limits to zero we directly could write the whole thing as zero,since anything multiplied to zero gives zero Isn't?
but ln(0) is undefined, so no, right
No, because ln(sin x) --> -infinity and we don't know for sure that the x is going to cancel it out fast enough
Assuming you know that: \[ \lim_{x\to0} \frac{\sin{x}}{x} = 1 \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{x\to0^{+}} x \ln{x} = 0\] You can solve it easier. First note that: \[(\sin{x})^{x} = \exp{(\ln{(\sin{x})^x})} = \exp{(x \ln{(\sin{x})})} \] Then multiply the exponent with (sin x / sin x) resulting in: \[ \exp{(\frac{x}{\sin{x}} \sin{x} \ln{(\sin{x})})} \to \exp{(1\times0)} = e^{0} =1 \quad \text{when} \quad x \to 0^{+} \]
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