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Mathematics 7 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

y=1/log5x find y'

OpenStudy (anonymous):

is this \[y=\frac{1}{\log(5x)}\] or perhaps \[y=\frac{1}{\log_5(x)}\]?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

second one

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok then use the following \[(\frac{1}{f})'=-\frac{f'}{f^2}\] with \[f(x)=\log_5(x),f'(x)=\frac{1}{x\ln(5)}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

or if you prefer, recall from the change of base formula that \[\log_5(x)=\frac{\ln(x)}{\ln(5)}\] and so \[\frac{1}{\log_5(x)}=\frac{\ln(5)}{\ln(x)}\] and take the derivative of that . it amounts to the same thing

OpenStudy (anonymous):

good from there or you need me to work it out?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

that's a derivative rule or is that just you putting it simple?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Yes please. I forgot there was a 4 at the top.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

the 4 is of no consequence. we just multiply by 4 at the end

OpenStudy (anonymous):

we want \[\frac{d}{dx}\frac{4\ln(5)}{\ln(x)}\] so we get \[\frac{-4\ln(5)}{\ln^2(x)}\times \frac{1}{x}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@outcast i am not sure if your question is directed at my statement that \[(\frac{1}{f})'=\frac{f'}{f^2}\] but that is easy to prove directly from the definition of the derivative. it is also a simple consequence of the chain rule because the derivative of \[\frac{1}{x}\text { is } -\frac{1}{x^2}\] so by the chain rule the derivative of \[\frac{1}{f(x)}\text { is } -\frac{1}{f^2(x)}\times f'(x)\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

missed a minus sign on first line sorry

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Ah, yeah it's chain rule with either quotient or exponent raised to numerator. I thought maybe in another book, this was another derivative rule shown in the books. Idk why they don't cause after a while you'll eventually grasped the concept that when you have 1/f it will be what is above and then the nex will be the n!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

not only that but when i took calc 1 i never saw it like that until i got to calc 2 and did sums

OpenStudy (anonymous):

series* i mean in which you see it clearly

OpenStudy (anonymous):

in fact it is much easier to start with that and then get the quotient rule. you can go directly from the definition and write \[\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\frac{1}{f(x+h)}-\frac{1}{f(x)}}{h}\] \[\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{f(x)-f(x+h)}{hf(x)f(x+h)}\] \[\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{f(x)-f(x+h)}{h}\times \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{1}{f(x)f(x+h)}\] \[=-f'(x)\times \frac{1}{f^2(x)}\] assuming f is differentiable and therefore continuous etc

OpenStudy (anonymous):

then get the quotient rule directly from that one using product rule, and without all the usual nonsense

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so i guess what i am saying is that yes, this is done in some books first as a rule

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