According to this property, 0n = 0.
According to this property, 0n = 0. @Mathematics

Question

According to this property, 0n = 0. 
According to this property, 0n = 0. @Mathematics

anonymous · Answer

i am not sure what you want for this, but actually it is proved by the distributive property

anonymous · Answer

$$0n=(0+0)n=0n+0n\implies 0n = 0$$

anonymous · Answer

hello all!

myininaya · Answer

hey!

anonymous · Answer

@myininaya you missed some doozies last night. lots of wrong answers and not just typos from me

turingtest · Answer

I'm pretty sure you just want to know this is called the "zero product property". Will just the name of the rule suffice?
Hello!

anonymous · Answer

what is "zero product property"?  i am not saying you are wrong, i just have not heard of it

anonymous · Answer

i actually looked it up it says 
$$ab=0\implies a = 0 \text{ or } b=0$$

turingtest · Answer

I've heard it also called the identity property of zero. It's just the rule that states (0)x=0 no matter what x is. Her'es a lame link just to show I didn't make it up. http://www.sparknotes.com/math/prealgebra/operations/section3.rhtml

myininaya · Answer

0x=0 
why does the name of the property matter?

turingtest · Answer

right?
I agree, but they like to use it for formal proofs

anonymous · Answer

2myinninaya why is it true?

myininaya · Answer

i like to say this is true since 0x=0 in a proof

anonymous · Answer

0 is the identity of addition, so how do we know how it acts with multiplication

myininaya · Answer

i see nothing  wrong with calling it the zero property

anonymous · Answer

and don't tell me "because anything times 0 is 0"!

turingtest · Answer

Is this part of Peano's axioms? I don't think so...

myininaya · Answer

a rectangle of height 0 with any base has area 0

anonymous · Answer

you can call it anything you like. i call myself satellite, and you call yourself "myininaya" or "turingtest" that is not my point

turingtest · Answer

Logically this is obvious, but if it's not an axiom it has to be proven by SOMEone

myininaya · Answer

$$0n=(k-k)n=nk-nk=0$$

anonymous · Answer

i proved it above assuming that multiplication distributes over addition.  the distributive law is the link between times and plus, so that is what you have to use

anonymous · Answer

that looks like a proof as well. note the use of the distributive law!

turingtest · Answer

Never seen it proved before. Interesting.
Later guys I have to go learn Spanish...

myininaya · Answer

yes i see the use of distributive law